Answer:
$519.43
Step-by-step explanation:
bc it is
<span>1st year value =45$
2nd year value=45+2.80$=47.80$
3rd year value=47.8+2.80$=50.60$
4th year value=50.60+2.80=53.40$
5th year value=53.40+2.80=56.20$
ater 5 years value of share becomes 56.20$
or
share after 5 years= 45+4*2.80=45+11.20=56.20$</span>
Put a point on 1 on the z-axis.
Then go up 5 and over 1 until you can't go up anymore! ❤
Answer: B
Step-by-step explanation:
First, simplify the main expression. The answer is 21.
Then simplify A. It is -106. That is not equal to 21 so A is wrong.
Then simplify B. That is 21. That means B is correct and you don’t have to solve C or D.
Answer:
The expected number of interviews is 3.25.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each person applying for a profissional position, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they land an interview, or they do not. The probability of a person landing an interview is independent of any other person. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.
The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

In this problem, we have that:

So

The expected number of interviews is 3.25.