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Vikki [24]
3 years ago
15

Can someone help me on this chart? the expressions for the perimeter of the rectangle is (4x2)+(2x2) =12

Mathematics
2 answers:
laila [671]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: <em>(- _-)</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

a_sh-v [17]3 years ago
6 0
The answer is maybe 5
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Simplify the expression(2x²y)^3
raketka [301]

Answer:

8x^6y^3

Step-by-step explanation:

(2x2y)3

=8x6y3

3 0
3 years ago
Explain how to solve 5^(x-2)=8 using log base b of y equals log y over log b. include the solution for x in your answer. round y
miskamm [114]

The value of x will be equal to 2.477.

<h3>What is a logarithm?</h3>

The logarithm is the inverse function of exponentiation in mathematics. That is, the logarithm of a given number x is the exponent to which another fixed number, the base b, must be raised in order to obtain that number x.

The given expression will be solved as follows;-

5^{x-2}= 8

Taking Log on both sides.

Log_e 5^{x-2}=Log_e8

(x-2) Log5 = Log 8

( x-2) = Log8 / Log 5

(x - 2) = Log 8 - Log 5

(x - 2 ) = Log 3

x-2 = 0.477

x  =  2.477

Therefore the value of x will be equal to 2.477.

To know more about Logarithm follow

brainly.com/question/25710806

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
Plz help!!!! Need quick. 65 points
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

The area of the mat is 2/3 m^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of a rectangle is length times width or

A = l x w

8/9 x 3/4 =

24/36 =

2/3

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Not sure what the student did wrong here.
yanalaym [24]
There all correct ....
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the expansion of cos x about the point x=0
ycow [4]

Answer:

Cos x = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{1!} + ...

Step-by-step explanation:

We use Taylor series expansion to answer this question.

We have to find the expansion of cos x at x = 0

f(x) = cos x, f'(x) = -sin x, f''(x) = -cos x, f'''(x) = sin x, f''''(x) = cos x

Now we evaluate them at x = 0.

f(0) = 1, f'(0) = 0, f''(0) = -1, f'''(0) = 0, f''''(0) = 1

Now, by Taylor series expansion we have

f(x) = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) + \frac{f''(a)(x-a)^2}{2!} + \frac{f'''(a)(x-a)^3}{3!} + \frac{f''''(a)(x-a)^4}{4!} + ...

Putting a = 0 and all the values from above in the expansion, we get,

Cos x = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{1!} + ...

8 0
3 years ago
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