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saveliy_v [14]
3 years ago
13

2 Solve 3 (3x +9) = –2(2x+6). The solution is x =

Mathematics
1 answer:
USPshnik [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

umm i dont really know, but you can try just doing it normally, and then figuring out the meaning of x and r

Step-by-step explanation:

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An integer N is to be selected at random from {1, 2, ... , (10)3 } in the sense that each integer has the same probability of be
Andrej [43]

Answer:

Probability of N Divisible by 3 - 0.33

Probability of N Divisible by 5 - 0.2

Probability of N Divisible by 7 - 0.413

Probability of N Divisible by 15 - 0.066

Probability of N Divisible by 105 - 0.0095

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data:

Integer N {1,2,.....10^3}

Thus total number of ways by which 1000 is divisible by 3 i.e. 1000/3 = 333.3

Probability of N divisible by 3 {N%3 = 0 } = \frac{333.3}{1000} = 0.33

total number of ways by which 1000 is divisible by 5 i.e. 1000/5 = 200

Probability of N divisible by 5 {N%5 = 0 } = \frac{200}{1000} = 0.2

total number of ways by which 1000 is divisible by 7 i.e. 1000/7 = 142.857

Probability of N divisible by 7 {N%7 = 0 } = \frac{142.857}{1000} = 0.413

total number of ways by which 1000 is divisible by 15 i.e. 1000/15 = 66.667

Probability of N divisible by 15 {N%15 = 0 } = \frac{66.667}{1000} = 0.066

total number of ways by which 1000 is divisible by 105 i.e. 1000/105 = 9.52

Probability of N divisible by 105 {N%105 = 0 } = \frac{9.52}{1000} = 0.0095

similarly for N is selected from 1,2.....(10)^k where K is  large then the N value. Therefore effect of k will remain same as previous part.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can a person live a million days?
natka813 [3]

Answer:

I think so I'm not too sure

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Consider the sequence given by a plus 8 pattern: 2, 10, 18, 26, ….
Finger [1]

Answer:

n = 1 second formula

n = 0 first formula

Step-by-step explanation:

I answer this in the other question you put, here it is again.

This is easy to get. We know the sequence cause it follows a pattern of 8, so let's try some values of n from 1 to 4, to get those numbers with the first formula:

n = 1,2,3,4

f(1) = 8(1) + 2 = 10

f(2) = 8(2) + 2 = 18

f(3) = 8(3) + 2 = 26

f(4) = 8(4) + 2 = 34

As you can see, with the first formula, the first term is 10, and not 2. The only way to get 2 with n = 1 is with the second formula:

f(1) = 8(1) - 6 = 2

f(2) = 8(2) - 6 = 10

f(3) = 8(3) - 6 = 18

f(4) = 8(4) - 6 = 26

With n = 1, the second formula was better and correct.

The first formula could be right only beggining with n = 0. Here is the proof:

f(0) = 8(0) + 2 = 2

6 0
3 years ago
How many inches (in.) are in 1 foot (ft.)?
velikii [3]

Answer:

12 inches are in 1 foot.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need help for Part A and B
Tamiku [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

A

The probability of wining is 1/4 so it's 25%. so if you win you either win one of 2 object, so we have to divide the chance of wining by the number of object, so (25%)/2

A it's ,12.5% chance of wining the mug

B yes, it will change if she pics the mug first, it will be 25% because it's guaranteed that she will get the mug if she wins

8 0
3 years ago
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