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Natasha_Volkova [10]
3 years ago
12

All else being equal, an overseas source with lower production cost will become relatively more attractive as

Business
1 answer:
Svetllana [295]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

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Holding all other things constant, a higher price for ski lift tickets would a) increase the number of skiers. b) increase the p
slega [8]

Answer:

The answer is C. decrease the number of skis sold

Explanation:

This satisfies the popular law of demand which states that other things being equal, the higher the price the lower the quantity demanded and vice-versa.

Ski lift is a normal good which also satisfies the law of demand. The elasticity of demand is elastic meaning 1% increase in price will lead to a significant decrease in quantity demanded.

3 0
3 years ago
The management of Ro Corporation is investigating automating a process. Old equipment, with a current salvage value of $24,000,
Margaret [11]

Answer:

36.26%

Explanation:

Simple rate of return:

return/investment

<u>return:</u>

In this case, it will be the cost saving for the new machine: 161,000

<u>investment</u>

We will decrease the investment by the recovery from the old machine.

468,000 new machine - 24,000 salvage value of new   = 444,000

<u>Then, proceed to calculate:</u>

161,000/444,000 = 0.3612 = 36.26%

Consideration:

Is important to state that this rate, do not consider the time value of money, neither the cash flow of the project.

3 0
3 years ago
Selected financial data regarding current assets and current liabilities for two competing companies, Simon and Garfunkel, are p
Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

Please find the detailed answer in the explanation section

Explanation:

1. Current ratio = Curren assets / Curren liabilities.

For Simon:

Current assets are:

Cash and cash equivalents $ 620

Short-term investments $3,690

Net receivables $992

Inventory $510

Other current assets $335

Total current assets $6,147

Current liabilities are:

Accounts payable $7,220

Short-term debt $1,270

Other current liabilities. $0

Total current liabilities $8,490

So current asset is $6,147/$8,490

0.72:1

For Garfunkel:

Current assets are:

Cash and cash equivalents $2,920

Short-term investments $0

Net receivables $1,330

Inventory $203

Other current assets $477

Total current assets $4,930

Current liabilities are:

Accounts payable $4,285

Short-term debt $1,028

Other current liabilities. $1,306

Total current liabilities $6,619

So current asset is $4,930/$6,619

0.74:1

1b Simon current asset is 0.72 while Garfunkel's own is 0.74

Therefore Garfunkel with 0.74 has a better current ratio

2a. Acid-test ratio = total current assets minus Inventory / total current liabilities

For Simon:

($6,147 - $510) / $8,490

=0.66:1

For Garfunkel:

($4,930 - $203) / $6,619

=0.71:1

2b. Garfunkel with 0.71 has a better acid-test ratio

6 0
3 years ago
Trade between nations can be mutually beneficial if one country has:.
SIZIF [17.4K]

Trade between nations can be mutually beneficial if one country has a comparative advantage.

<h3>What do you mean by a comparative advantage?</h3>

The model of comparative advantage is one of the basic concepts that underlies the theory of international trade and shows that countries tend to specialize in the production and export of those goods that they manufacture at a relatively lower cost than the rest of the world.

Those that are comparatively more efficient than others and that tend to import goods in which they are more inefficient and therefore produce with costs that are comparatively higher than the rest of the world.

Learn more about Trade, refer to the link:

brainly.com/question/1594296

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
Sanford Company currently has 15% of its market value in debt and 85% in common stock, with no preferred stock. Its debt has a c
devlian [24]

Answer:

WACC is 9.35%

Explanation:

In order for us to compute the weighted average cost of capital, we have to first find the cost of equity (Ke) and the cost of debt (Kd)

1. Ke can be found by using CAPM - Capital Asset Pricing Model.

CAPM Formula: Ke = Rf + b(Rm-Rf)

where Rf = Risk free rate; Rm = Return expected of the market; b = beta

Therefore = Ke = 3% + 0.9(11%-3%) = 10.2%

2. Kd = Coupon rate (1 - tax rate), coupon rate is 7%, tax rate is 35%

therefore Kd = 7 (1-0.35) = 4.35%

Lastly we apply the WACC Formula which is Ke* (equity value/Total value of equity and debt) + kd*(debt value/Total value of equity and debt)

We are not given the values of equity and debt, bur we are given the fractions; we will use the fractions.

Therefore: Ke* (equity value/Total value of equity and debt) + kd*(debt value/Total value of equity and debt) = (10.2%*85%)+(4.35%*15%) = 9.35%

4 0
4 years ago
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