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VladimirAG [237]
3 years ago
8

Find the sum of 2x^2-6x-2 and x^2+4x

Mathematics
1 answer:
Paul [167]3 years ago
8 0


2x^2 -6x -2+x^2+4x

All you have to do is add like terms

2x^2+x^2

= 3x^2

-6x+4x

= -2x

Then add them together to get one equation

3x^2 -2x -2

I recommend you study how to add variables as these are very basic sums. Just practice :)
You might be interested in
Suppose that the probability that a person is killed by lightning, in a year is, independently of other people, 1/(500 million).
Katen [24]

Answer:

a) P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X

The individual pprobabilities are:

P(X=0)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.548812

P(X=1)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.329287

P(X=2)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.098786

And if we replace we got:

P(X \geq 3) = 1- [0.548812+0.329287+0.098786]=0.023115

b) P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X

And we can calculate this with the following excel formula:

=1-BINOM.DIST(2;300000000;(1/500000000);TRUE)

And we got:

P(X\geq 3) = 0.023115

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=300000000, p=\frac{1}{500000000})

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

(a) Write down the exact expression for the probability P(3 or more people will be killed by lightning in the U.S. next year). Evaluate this expression to 6 decimal places.

For this case we want this probability, we are going to use the complement rule:

P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X

The individual probabilities are:

P(X=0)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.548812

P(X=1)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.329287

P(X=2)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.098786

And if we replace we got:

P(X \geq 3) = 1- [0.548812+0.329287+0.098786]=0.023115

(b) Write down a relevant approximate expression for the probability from (a). Justify briefly the approximation. Evaluate this expression to 6 decimal places.

For this case we want this probability, we are going to use the complement rule:

P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X

And we can calculate this with the following excel formula:

=1-BINOM.DIST(2;300000000;(1/500000000);TRUE)

And we got:

P(X\geq 3) = 0.023115

7 0
4 years ago
Alexis is a lawyer. She bills her clients $100 an hour for her services. She can also mow her lawn in 30 minutes. She can hire s
Papessa [141]

Answer:

b) $49

Step-by-step explanation:

The question here is not if Alexis can mow the lawn faster or slower than the person who hires (actually, the time that the person hired took to mow the lawn is irrelevant).

The important part is the time Alexis can save hiring someone:

  • Alexis mow her lawn in 30 minutes.
  • Alexis earns $100 an hour. Then 30 minutes of her time is worthy $50.

Then, paying $50 or less is a good choice for Alexis.

Therefore the answer is b) $49.

8 0
4 years ago
E= hf-w
Blababa [14]
E = hf-w
hf-w = E
w = hf - E

The correct answer is D. hf - E.
It's a simple equation. 
7 0
4 years ago
What is 48 times 22 1/2 times 32 equal to?
BlackZzzverrR [31]
The simplified answer is 34560
4 0
2 years ago
WILL MARK BRAINLIEST
Leto [7]

Please mark me brainliest! :D

Part 1) To find the measure of ∠A in ∆ABC, use

we know that

In the triangle ABC

Applying the law of sines

in this problem we have

therefore

the answer Part 1) is

Law of Sines

Part 2) To find the length of side HI in ∆HIG, use

we know that

In the triangle HIG

Applying the law of cosines

In this problem we have

g=HI

G=angle Beta

substitute

therefore

the answer Part 2) is

Law of Cosines

7 0
3 years ago
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