Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

7

How would you write 105% as a decimal?

2 answers:

Alborosie3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

One hundred and one tenths, or 1.05 in decimal form.

Step-by-step explanation:

If a number is followed by a percent sign %, then the number indicates what proportion of 100% it stacks up to out of its base measurement (i.e., out of 100 yards run, this athlete ran 105). So if you converted 2% into decimal form that would be 0.02 or 200/1000th's (0.2), and 4% would be 0.04 or 400/1000ths equal to 0.4).

kondor19780726 [428]3 years ago

4 0

105% as a decimal would be 1.05 in decimal form

You might be interested in

Peters glasses each hold 8 fluid ounces how many glasses of juice can peter pour from a bottle that holds 2 quarts

soldi70 [24.7K]

There are 4 cups in a quart so he can pour 8 glasses of juice :p

7 0

3 years ago

Negative six and one third plus twenty over three

nydimaria [60]

Answer:

1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

-6+(-1/3)= -19/3

-19/3 + 20/3 = 1/3

6 0

4 years ago

Please help meeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee

mash [69]

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply both sides by 7.

5s+8=28

Subtract 8 from both sides.

5s=20

Divide 5 from both sides,

s=4

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Which set or sets does the number 15 belong to

8_murik_8 [283]

Rational,whole,integer,real

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Prove ΔPAB is isosceles.

Licemer1 [7]

Answer:

See explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

If $PX\cong PY,$ then triangle PXY is isosceles triangle. Angles adjacent to the base XY of an isosceles triangle PXY are congruent, so

$\angle 1\cong \angle 2$

and

$m\angle 1=m\angle 2$

Angles 1 and 3 are supplementary, so

$m\angle 3=180^{\circ}-m\angle 1$

Angles 2 and 4 are supplementary, so

$m\angle 4=180^{\circ}-m\angle 2$

By substitution property,

$m\angle 4=180^{\circ}-m\angle 2=180^{\circ}-m\angle 1=m\angle 3$

Hence,

$\angle 3\cong \angle 4$

Consider triangles APX and BPY. In these triangles:

$PX\cong PY$ - given;
$\angle 5\cong \angle 6$ - given;
$\angle 3\cong \angle 4$ - proven,

so $\triangle APX\cong \triangle BPY$ by ASA postulate.

Congruent triangles have congruent corresponding sides, then

$AP\cong BP$

Therefore, triangle APB is isosceles triangle (by definition).

6 0

4 years ago