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lawyer [7]
3 years ago
13

#3 Scott got a ride in a taxi. The ride was $48. The cab company charged a fee of $7

Mathematics
1 answer:
zysi [14]3 years ago
5 0
I believe 20.5 miles . You minus 7 from 48 getting 41 . Then divide that by 2 getting 20.5
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Someone help please ASAP
notka56 [123]

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use the Pythagorean identity on page 10 with x = 4 and y= 3 to generate a Pythagorean triple​
Dmitry [639]

Answer:

  c.  7, 24, 25

Step-by-step explanation:

For the formulas ...

  • a=x^2-y^2
  • b=2xy
  • c=x^2+y^2

we can use the given values of x and y to find the corresponding Pythagorean triple:

  a = 4^2 -3^2 = 16 -9 = 7

  b = 2·4·3 = 24

  c = 4^2 +3^2 = 16 +9 = 25

The generated Pythagorean triple is (7, 24, 25), matching answer C.

6 0
2 years ago
What is 1+1? Very urgent
forsale [732]

Answer:

62

Step-by-step explanation:

anything plus 1 equals 62.

Hope this helps. Have a nice day you amazing bean child.

( jk jk. It's 2)

8 0
3 years ago
What four consecutive intergers have a sum of -34
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

-7, -8 , -9 and -10 are such four integers.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the first integer = k

So, the next three consecutive integers are ( k+1), ((k + 1) + 1)  and (((k + 1) + 1) +1)

or, k , (k +1), (k +2) and (k +3) are four consecutive integers.

Now, their sum is -34.

⇒k   + (k +1) +  (k +2) +  (k +3)  = -34

or, 4k  + 6 = -34

or, 4k = - 34 - 6 = -40

⇒  k = -40/ 4 = -10

Hence, the first integer k = -10

The next integer = k + 1 = -10 + 1 = -9

Similarly next two integers are -8 and - 7.

So -7, -8 , -9 and -10 are such four integers.

7 0
3 years ago
The probability that an egg on a production line is cracked is 0.01. Two eggs are selected at random from the production line. F
musickatia [10]

Answer:

P(X \geq 1)=1-P(X

P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.01)^0 (1-0.01)^{2-0}=0.9801

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-0.9801 = 0.0199

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable of interest "number of craked eggs", on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=2, p=0.01)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

And we want to find this probability:

P(x \geq 1)=1-P(X

And we can find the probability:

P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.01)^0 (1-0.01)^{2-0}=0.9801

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-0.9801 = 0.0199

5 0
2 years ago
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