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DanielleElmas [232]
3 years ago
15

Answer these 3 and I'll give brainlist

Mathematics
1 answer:
mel-nik [20]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

50 minutes

6 ornaments

x = 4

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Question in the image will give brainlyy
Tcecarenko [31]
The answer would be d
3 0
3 years ago
WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!
slamgirl [31]

Step-by-step explanation:

3(4x - 2) = 12x - 6

12x - 6 = 12x - 6

that is always true, no matter what value we pick for x.

so, this has infinite many solutions.

3(4x - 2) = -12x - 6

12x - 6 = -12x - 6

24x = 0

x = 0

this has one solution.

-3(4x - 2) = -12x - 2

-12x - 6 = -12x - 2

-6 = -2

this is never true, no matter what value we pick for x.

so, this has no solution at all.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE help. I have posted this question many times and no one is answering.
11111nata11111 [884]

Answer:

Proportional

Step-by-step explanation:

It follows the proportion of 1:10, 1 part bleach to 10 parts water.

3 0
3 years ago
How do you reduce 2 1/32
loris [4]

Answer:

2\frac{1}{32}=\frac{2\cdot 32+1}{32}=\frac{65}{32}

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering the expression

2\frac{1}{32}

As

\mathrm{Convert\:mixed\:numbers\:to\:improper\:fraction:}\:a\frac{b}{c}=\frac{a\cdot \:c+b}{c}

<em>Improper fraction is a fraction which has numerator greater than denominator, such as 5/3.</em>

So,

2\frac{1}{32}=\frac{2\cdot 32+1}{32}=\frac{65}{32}

As 2\frac{1}{32} is converted into improper fraction  \frac{65}{32} .

And  \frac{65}{32} can not be further reduced.

Therefore,

2\frac{1}{32}=\frac{2\cdot 32+1}{32}=\frac{65}{32}

Keywords: fraction, reduced form, improper fraction

Learn more about fractions from brainly.com/question/535608

#learnwithBrainly

7 0
3 years ago
Is 8/9 greater than 5/10
Agata [3.3K]
Yes 8/9 is greater than 5/10
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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