If f(x) =4x-3 and g(x) =x+4, find (f-g)(x)
1 answer:
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C: None of the above
Answer:
Logically that's not possible but if you want to prove it then, you have to use a trick.
Step-by-step explanation:
1 + 1 = 1 +
= 1 +
= 1 + *
= 1 + *
= 1 + i * i
= 1 + i^2
= 1 + (-1)
= 1 - 1
= 0
So, 1 + 1 = 0
Hope this will help. Please give me brainliest.