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Arisa [49]
3 years ago
6

The square of the standard deviation is called the what

Business
1 answer:
snow_tiger [21]3 years ago
5 0

pls follow me

Explanation:

The square of the standard deviation is called the<u> </u><u>Variance</u>

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A stock has an expected return of 11.2 percent, the risk-free rate is 3 percent, and the market risk premium is 5 percent. What
padilas [110]

Answer:

beta = 1.64

Explanation:

in order to calculate beta, we can use the cost of equity formula:, but instead of cost of equity we can use expected return:

expected return = risk free rate + (beta x market risk premium)

11.2% = 3% + (beta x 5%)

beta x 5% = 11.2% - 3% = 8.2%

beta = 8.2% / 5% = 1.64

in order to calculate beta, we can use the cost of equity formula:

7 0
3 years ago
ABC Limited, Inc., sells its product in a perfectly competitive market for a price of $15 per unit and hires workers at a daily
Svetach [21]

Answer:

The company's profit will remain unchanged.

Explanation:

The new worker will increase costs by $75 per day while the total sales will increase by $75 per day (= 5 units x $15). The only way the company increases its profit is that they sell at least 6 more units per day.

3 0
3 years ago
Mr. Thano, age 47, withdrew $22,000 from his employer-sponsored qualified retirement plan to pay for his daughter's wedding. Com
Naya [18.7K]

Answer:

$7,480

Explanation:

Mr Thano withdrew $22,000 at the age of 47

Marginal Tax rate= 24%

At the age of 47 means that the withdraw was made prematurely. Immature withdrawal of retirement plans means withdrawal made before the age of 60-65 years depending on the Country Policy

Hence, Tax Cost = 24% * 22,000

Tax cost = 5,280.

In addition, Mr Thano will be charge premature withdrawal cost of 10% as well

10% * 22000 = 2,200.

In total, the tax cost on the withdrawal of $22,000 is = $5,280 + $2,200 = $7,480

3 0
3 years ago
Using the aging method of accounts receivable method, $5,000 of the company's Accounts Receivable are estimated to be uncollecti
romanna [79]

Answer:

The answer is A.

Explanation:

Closing/Ending balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts = Unadjusted credit (debit) balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts + Bad Debt Expense

To get Bad Debt Expense, we re-write the formula:.

Closing/Ending balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts − Unadjusted ending credit (debit) balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

Ending/Closing method balance in allowance for doubtful debt= $5,000

Unadjusted ending credit (debit) balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts =$500

So we have:

= $5,000 − $500

= $4,500

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Speculative investments are which of the following?
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

d- high risk

Explanation:

A speculative investment is characterized by a high risk of losing its value but offers the possibility of high return. An investor will buy the investment to profit from market value changes. A speculator is an investor who engages in speculative business.

A speculator's motive is to profit in the short run from an asset. He or she is not concerned by the fundamental value of the asset, only its price volatility. Dividends or interest other financial indicators of an asset are the least of his or her concerns. A speculator focuses on the expected future price of the asset.

Speculative investments happen in real estate markets, currencies, stocks, and commodity futures.

6 0
4 years ago
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