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Natali [406]
2 years ago
5

Prove algebraically that (m + 2)2 – m 2 – 12 is always a multiple of 4

Mathematics
1 answer:
Julli [10]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(m + 2)^{2} - m^{2}  - 12 = 4(m - 2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:

Write the expression

(m+2)^{2} - m^{2}  - 12

Step 2: Expand (m + 2)^{2}

(m+2)^{2} - m^{2} - 12\\(m+2)(m+2) - m^{2}  - 12\\m^{2} + 2m + 2m + 4 - m^{2}  - 12

Step 3: Collect similar terms

m^{2}  - m^{2}  + 4m + 4 - 12\\4m - 8

Step 4: Factor 4 out of the expression to prove that the expression is a multiple of 4.

Therefore\\4m - 8 = 4(m - 2)\\Hence,\\(m+2)^{2}  - m^{2} -  12 is a multiply of 4 because the expression is equal to 4(m-2)

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20 POINTS HELPPPPP
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For this case we have the following expression:

\frac {216 ^ {n-2}} {(\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}} = 216

We multiply both sides by: (\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}

216 ^ {n-2} = 216 * (\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}

We divide both sides by 216:

\frac {216 ^ {n-2}} {216} = (\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}

To divide powers of the same base, we place the same base and subtract the exponents:

216 ^ {n-2-1} = (\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}\\216 ^ {n-3} = (\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}

Rewriting:

(6 ^ 3) ^ {n-3} = (\frac {1} {6 ^ 2}) ^ {3n}\\6 ^ {3n-9} = \frac {1} {6 ^ {6n}}\\6^{ 3n-9} * 6^{ 6n} = 1

To multiply powers of the same base, we place the same base and add the exponents:

6^{ 3n-9 + 6n} = 1\\6^{ 9n-9} = 1

We know that any number raised to zero is 1, a ^ 0 = 1.

So, for equality to be true:

9n-9 = 0\\9n = 9\\n = \frac {9} {9}\\n = 1

Answer:

n = 1

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