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Butoxors [25]
2 years ago
7

To get into shape, Miles ran for 1 minute on Monday, 3 minutes on Tuesday, 6 minutes on Wednesday, and 10 minutes on Thursday. I

f he continues, how many minutes will Miles run on Sunday?
Mathematics
2 answers:
lbvjy [14]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Miles will run for 28 minutes on Sunday.

Step-by-step explanation:

Monday: 1 minute

Tuesday: 3 - 1 minute = 2 minutes

Wednesday: 6 - 3 minutes = 3 minutes

Thursday: 10 - 6 minutes = 4 minutes

Friday: 15 -10 minutes = 5 minutes

Saturday: 21 - 15 minutes = 6 minutes

Sunday: 28 - 21 minutes = 7 minutes

Miles will run for 28 minutes on Sunday.

Ivahew [28]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: 40 mins

Step-by-step explanation:

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Plssssss help me with this math pls
sdas [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is A) 4/663.

Step-by-step explanation:

First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the  probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.

Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king  of clubs) in a deck of cards, the  probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.

Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,

4/52 x 4/51 =

4 x 4/52 x 51 =

16/2652

Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:

16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and

2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.

So, the final answer is 4/663.

4 0
3 years ago
Find the first six terms of the sequence. a1 = 1, an = 4 • an-1
maksim [4K]
\bf \begin{array}{ccllll}
n&term&value\\
---&-----&-----\\
1&a_1&1\\
2&a_2&4\cdot a_{2-1}\\
&&4\cdot a_1\\
&&4\\
3&a_3&4\cdot a_{3-1}\\
&&4\cdot a_2\\
&&16\\
4&a_4&4\cdot a_{4-1}\\
&&4\cdot a_3\\
&&64\\
5&a_5&4\cdot a_{5-1}\\
&&4\cdot a_4\\
&&256\\
6&a_6&4\cdot a_{6-1}\\
&&4\cdot a_5\\
&&1024
\end{array}
3 0
3 years ago
The circumference of the smaller circle is 30% of the circumference of the larger circle. Find the circumference of the larger c
Tasya [4]

Answer:

The circumference of the larger circle is 94.2 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Confirm that f and g are inverses by showing that f(g(x)) = x and g(f(x)) = x.
maks197457 [2]
F(g(x)) = [(-7x-8)/(x-1) - 8} / [(-7x - 8)/(x-1) + 7] =

[(-7x - 8 - 8(x-1)) / (x-1)] / [(-7x - 8 + 7(x-1)) / (x-1)] = (-15x) / (-15) = x.

g(f(x)) = [-7*(x-8)/(x+7) - 8] / [(x-8)/(x+7) - 1] =

[(-7x + 56 -8*(x+7)) / (x+7)] / [(x - 8 - (x + 7)) / (x+7)] = (-15x) / (-15) = x.

So since f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x we can conclude that f and g are inverses.
5 0
2 years ago
Sarah drank 75% of a one-pint carton of milk at lunchtime. How many ounces of milk were left in the carton?
Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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