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Y_Kistochka [10]
3 years ago
5

Given an interest rate of zero percent, the future value of a lump sum invested today will always:A. Remain constant, regardless

of the investment time period.B. Decrease if the investment time period is shortened.C. Decrease if the investment time period is lengthened.D. Be infinite in value.
Business
1 answer:
nalin [4]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. remain constant, regardless of the investment time period

Explanation:

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The firm's policy is to have finished goods inventory on hand at the end of the month that is equal to 70 percent of the next mo
Dahasolnce [82]

Answer:

\left[\begin{array}{ccccc}& &September&October&November\\&$sales&6000&6800&5600\\&$Desired ending&4760&3920&4270\\&$Total Needs&10760&10720&9870\\&$beginning&4200&4760&3920\\&$Production Requirement&6560&5960&5950\\\end{array}\right]

MISSING INFORMATION ATTACHED

Explanation:

\left[\begin{array}{ccccc}& &September&October&November\\&$sales&6000&6800&5600\\&$Desired ending&4760&3920&4270\\&$Total Needs&10760&10720&9870\\&$beginning&4200&4760&3920\\&$Production Requirement&6560&5960&5950\\\end{array}\right]

The sales forecasted plus the desired ending inventory is the complete needs the sales department expect to be fullfill

Then, as the company has a beginning invneotry each period a portion of this needs is already fullfil thus, the difference are the production requirements.

7 0
3 years ago
The Cutting Department has 6,000 units in process at the end of September that are 100% complete for direct materials. The units
MArishka [77]

Answer:

equivalent units of production = 6,000 units

Explanation:

given data

process at end of September = 6,000 units

direct materials = 100%

direct labor and manufacturing overhead = 70%

solution

we get here equivalent units of production for the conversion cost that is

equivalent units of production = process at end × direct materials complete .........................1

put here value and we get

equivalent units of production = 6,000 units ×  100%

equivalent units of production = 6,000 units

7 0
3 years ago
Katie is looking over some of the product histories for the company. She has noticed that many more products have been rendered
valkas [14]

Answer:C. It makes it more difficult for the company to define an appropriate time period.

Explanation: Obsolete Items or products are products are no longer useful or relevant,it can be used to describe a product whose Quality has adversely depleted making it not useful.

With the information,since the products are fast becoming Obsolete than when compared to 10years ago,it makes it more difficult to determine or arrive at the appropriate time period for the company to keep the product before it becomes obsolete.

6 0
3 years ago
On October 1, 2022, Ivanhoe Company places a new asset into service. The cost of the asset is $87500 with an estimated 5-year li
Dimas [21]

Answer:

$3150

Explanation:

Given:

Cost of the asset purchased = $87500 (on 1st October. 2022)

Salvage value at the end of its useful life = $24500

Useful life estimated = 5 years

Question asked:

What is the depreciation expense for 2022 if Ivanhoe Company uses the straight-line method of depreciation?

Solution:

<u>As we know:</u>

Straight-Line\ Depreciation\ Expense=\frac{Cost\ - Salvage\ Value}{Useful\ Life\ of\ the\ Asset}

                                                               =\frac{87500-24500}{5} =\frac{63000}{5} =12600

Depreciation expenses per year = $12600

But we have to find depreciation expenses for 2022 for:-

From 1st October, 2022 to 31st December, 2022 = 3 months.

<em><u>Straight-Line Depreciation Expense for Partial Year = </u></em>

<em><u /></em>D\times\frac{N}{12} \\\\ D=Depreciation\ expense\ for\ a\ complete\ year.\\N= Number\ of\ months\ during\ which\ the\ fixed\ asset\ was\ available\ for\ use

Depreciation Expense for 3 months = 12600\times\frac{3}{12} =\frac{37800}{12} =3150

Therefore, the depreciation expense for 2022 if Ivanhoe Company uses the straight-line method of depreciation is $3150.

                                                             

5 0
3 years ago
In a liquidation, a.gains or losses are distributed according to the partnership agreement. b.assets may be sold at amounts that
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Liquidation is when the business closes down or dissolves which means the business will not continue any further. Firstly all the assets are sold at their market value which differs from the actual cost or the book value and all the liablities are paid for (or compensated for). After paying all the due balances and receiving all receivables the gain or loss is divided amongst the partners according to their partnership agreement which states the profit/loss sharing ratio. in case of no agreement, the profit/loss is shared equally.

8 0
3 years ago
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