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Y_Kistochka [10]
3 years ago
5

Given an interest rate of zero percent, the future value of a lump sum invested today will always:A. Remain constant, regardless

of the investment time period.B. Decrease if the investment time period is shortened.C. Decrease if the investment time period is lengthened.D. Be infinite in value.
Business
1 answer:
nalin [4]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. remain constant, regardless of the investment time period

Explanation:

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In Agile projects early risk planning, assessment and response planning is done at a high level, and more detailed and timely ri
kkurt [141]

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

Quick program management relates to the factors which determine the success or failures of a task. Risk assessment doesn't need to provide structured risk reports and reviews on agility programs. Risk management is integrated into scrum jobs, tools, and activities.

Agile risk assessment is achieved more by then describing activities. Several Agile methods search throughout the process to define and minimize the risks.

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My neighbor, martha, ran into my house crying and angry. "my car has been stolen!" she gasped. "i saw them take it!" i called th
victus00 [196]
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3 0
3 years ago
Morgan Company's budgeted income statement reflects the following amounts:Sales Purchases ExpensesJanuary $ 120,000 $ 78,000 $ 2
Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

 e.$113,300                                          

Explanation:

Download xlsx
7 0
3 years ago
What is a business opportunity?
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

A business opportunity (or bizopp) involves sale or lease of any product, service, equipment, etc. that will enable the purchaser-licensee to begin a business.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
David Ortiz Motors has a target capital structure of 40% debt and 60% equity. The yield to maturity on the company's outstanding
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

Cost of equity = 14.43%

Explanation:

Weigheted Average cost of capital is computed using the formula below:

WACC = (Wd×Kd)  + (We×Ke)

           Kd= aftre tax cost of debt= 12%× (1-0.4)= 7.2%

           Wd =Proportion of debt= 40%

           We = proportion of equity = 60%

            Ke= cost of equity.

let the cost of equity be "y"

WACC = 11.54

11.54 = (40%× 7.2%) + (60% × y)

0.1154  = 0.0288 + 0.6y

0.1154 - 0.0288 = 0.6y

y =(0.1154 - 0.0288)/0.6

y = 0.1443 × 100

y =14.43%

Cost of equity = 14.43%

         

8 0
3 years ago
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