Answer:
1.38888889
Step-by-step explanation:
Do the math on the calculator to get the answer.
Answer:
pi/4
Step-by-step explanation:
my answer is in the image above
m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)
m = (6-4)/(4-0)
m = 2/4
y = mx + c
6 = (2/4)(4) + c
c = 4
Thus, the equation is y = (2/4)x +4
<span>Well, the number is decimal form, is in the thousandths place, so the denominator, would be 1000's:
<em><u>0.275 = 275⁄1000</u></em></span><em><u> </u></em>
<span>Then, you have to Simplify 275⁄1000 In which, you would get: <em><u> 11⁄40</u></em></span><span><em><u> </u></em></span>
Answer: 60
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the side lengths of the rectangular pan be m and n. It follows that (m-2) (n-2)=
So, since haf of the brownie pieces are in the interior. This gives 2 (m-2) (n-2) =mn
mn- 2m - 2n- 4 = 0
Then Adding 8 to both sides and applying, we obtain (m-2) (n-2) =8
Since now, m and n are both positive, we obtain (m,n) = (5,12), (6,8) (up to ordering). By inspection, 5. 12 = 60
which maximizes the number of brownies in total which is the greatest number.
Hope that helped! =)