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Nimfa-mama [501]
3 years ago
15

A system of two linear inequalities is graphed as shown, where the solution region is shaded.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Zinaida [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(-3,2) is located in the solution region.

Step-by-step explanation:

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An actor invests some money at 9​% simple​ interest, and ​$24,000 more than three times the amount at 10​% simple interest. The
Andrew [12]

Answer:

The amount invested at 9% is $93000

The amount invested at 10% is $303000

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the amount invested at 9% interest rate be x

And the amount invested at 10% rate be y

Simple Interest from x in a year = 0.09x

Simple Interest from y in a year = 0.1y

But y = 24000 + 3x

And the sun of the interests, 0.09x + 0.1y = 38670

Now we have a simultaneous eqn

y = 24000 + 3x (eqn 1)

0.09x + 0.1y = 38670 (eqn)

Substitute y into eqn 2

0.09x + 0.1(24000 + 3x) = 38670

0.09x + 2400 + 0.3x = 38670

0.39x = 38670 - 2400

x = 36270/0.39 = $93000

y = 24000 + 3x = 24000 + 3 × 93000 = $303000

8 0
4 years ago
When you divide any number by a fraction less than one what happens to the original number
mash [69]
I'm not quite sure, you should be able to divide the original number by 1
5 0
4 years ago
Every four years is a leap year. If a year is randomly chosen, what is the probability that it will NOT be a leap year?
Aloiza [94]

Answer:

3/4.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 3 non leap years  in every 4 year period so it s 3/4.

5 0
3 years ago
A bag contains 40 marbles. The probability of selecting a red marble at random is 1/5. How many red marbles are in the bag?
goblinko [34]

Answer:

8 red marbles.

Step-by-step explanation:

All together we have 40 marbles. The fraction of marbles that are red is 1/5 which means that we should divide the total number of marbles, which is 40 by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) 5 so that we get the number of groups that have 1 red marble in them. In this case we have 8 groups.

40/5=8

You always divide by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) first and then you multiply your answer by the numerator ( Top number of fraction ) .

If each group has 1 red marble in it and we have 8 groups, it means that we have 8 red marbles in the bag.

1 * 8 = 8 red marbles in the bag

If the numerator (number above the fraction line) was more than one, then this would mean that we have more than 1 marble in each group of marbles.

Example:

If we had 3/5 we would have 3 marbles in each group of marbles. This means that instead of doing 1 * 8 we would have to do 3 * 8 = 24. We would have 24 red marbles in the bag.

Easy and quick way if you do not need the explanation:

Another way we could do this is by simply multiplying the fraction ( 1/5 ) by the total number of marbles ( 40 ). This would still give us an answer of 8 red marbles in the bag. 40/5=8, 8*1=8

7 0
3 years ago
HELP!
dedylja [7]
15+12+8+x=44
35-44=9
x=9
7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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