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ryzh [129]
2 years ago
11

I answered it but I just need someone to answer just to make sure mine are right

Mathematics
1 answer:
Artemon [7]2 years ago
5 0
<h2>The missing measures of the angles are:</h2>

m\angle 1= 60^{\circ}\\\\m\angle 2= 39^{\circ}\\\\m\angle 3= 21^{\circ}\\\\m\angle 4 = 39^{\circ}\\\\m\angle 5 = 21^{\circ}

<u>Given</u>:

m\angle Z = 138^{\circ}

<em><u>Note the following:</u></em>

  • An equilateral triangle has all its three angles equal to each other. Each angle = 60^{\circ}.
  • This implies that, since \triangle WXY is equilateral, therefore, m\angle Y = m\angle XWY = m\angle XYW = 60^{\circ}

  • Base angles of an isosceles triangle are congruent to each other.
  • This implies that, since \triangle WZY is isosceles, therefore, m\angle 3 = \angle 5

Applying the above stated, let's find the measure of each angle:

  • Find m\angle 1

m\angle 1 = 60^{\circ} (an angle in an equilateral triangle equals 60 degrees)

  • Find m\angle 2

m\angle 2 = 60 - m \angle 3

m\angle 2 = 60 -\frac{1}{2}(180 - 138) (Note: \frac{1}{2}(180 - 138) = 1 $ base $ angle $ of $ \triangle WZY)

m\angle 2 = 60 -21\\\\m\angle 2 = 39^{\circ}

  • Find m\angle 3 and m\angle 5 (base angles of isosceles triangle WZY)

m\angle 3 =  \frac{1}{2}(180 - 138) (1 $ base $ angle $ of $ \triangle WZY)

m\angle 3 =  \frac{1}{2}(42) \\\\m\angle3 = 21^{\circ}

m\angle3 = m\angle 5 (base angles of isosceles triangle are congruent)

Therefore,

m\angle5 = 21^{\circ}

  • Find m\angle 4

m\angle 4 = 60 - m\angle 5

Substitute

m\angle 4 = 60 - 21\\\\m\angle 4 = 39^{\circ}

The missing measures of the angles are:

m\angle 1= 60^{\circ}\\\\ m\angle 2= 39^{\circ}\\\\m\angle 3= 21^{\circ}\\\\m\angle 4 = 39^{\circ}\\\\m\angle 5 = 21^{\circ}

Learn more here:

brainly.com/question/2944195

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Ket [755]

Answer:

  B.  Step 2 uses the associative property, and step 3 uses the commutative property.

Step-by-step explanation:

The associative property lets you group terms for addition any way you like. It appears that in Step 2, the grouping is ...

  4 + (1/6 + 3) + 5/6

The commutative property lets you change the order of any pair of terms involved in addition. It appears that in Step 3, the order of the terms within the group has been swapped.

  4 + (3 + 1/6) + 5/6

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<em>Comment on associative and commutative properties</em>

What applies to terms in addition applies to factors in multiplication.

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Naya [18.7K]
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ExtremeBDS [4]

Answer:

B. No. The product of two fractions is the product of the numerators divided by the product of the denominators.

Step-by-step explanation:

For A: A is clearly false because you can multiply any fraction and it doesnt matter what the denominator is.

For B: The first part is correct, which is that to multiply two fractions, they dont have to have like/common denominators, the explanation part is also correct. When we multiply we multiply the numerator to the numerator and the denominator to the denominator.

For C: C is false because the first part says yes and we know that you can multiply any 2 fractions regardless of denominators.

For D: For D the first part is correct however, the explanation section is false you dont multiply the numerator to the denominator.

For E: You don't have to find the equivalent fraction to multiply because you can do that afterward.

I hope this helps, have a blessed day! :D

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stealth61 [152]
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