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svetoff [14.1K]
3 years ago
14

Air ows over a wall at a supersonic speed. The wall turns towards the ow generating an oblique shock wave. This wave is found to

be at an angle of 400 to the initial ow direction. A scratch on the wall upstream of the shock wave is found to generate a very weak wave that is at an angle of 300 to the ow. Find the angle through
Physics
1 answer:
Flauer [41]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

10.65°

Explanation:

To calculate the initial Mach Number

Sin \beta _{weak} = \frac{1}{Ma_1}

Ma_1 = \frac{1}{sin \beta_weak}

Ma_1 = \frac{1}{sin 30}

Ma_1 = 2

Now, to calculate the angle turned by the wall; we have the following expression.

tan \theta = \frac{2 cot \beta_i (Ma_1^2 sin^2 \beta_i -1 )}{Ma_1^2(k+cos2 \beta_i)+2}

where:

\beta_i = the angle between the initial flow direction = 40°

K is the ratio of specific heats o fair = 1.4

tan \theta = \frac{2 (cot 40) (2^2 (sin 40)^2 -1 )}{2^2(1.4+cos2 (40))+2}

tan \theta = \frac{1.56}{8.295}

tan \theta = 0.188

\theta = tan ^{-1}( 0.188)

\theta = 10.65^0

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The hour and minute hands of a tower clock like Big Ben in London are 2.79 m and 4.44 m long and have masses of 58.2 kg and 90 k
LuckyWell [14K]

Answer: 895.85 x 10^-6 J or 8.96 x 10^-4 J

Explanation:

Angular kinetic energy E in Joules

E = ½Iw^2

W is angular velocity in radians/sec

1 radian/sec = 9.55 rev/min

I is moment of inertia in kgm^2

I = cMR^2

M is mass (kg), R is radius (meters)

c = 1/3 for a rod around its end, R = length

For minute hand

I = (1/3)(90)(4.44)^2 = 0.33 x 90 x 19.7136 = 585.49

w= 1 rev/hour = 1 rev/3600sec = 2pi/ 3600 = pi/1800 rad/s

KE = 1/2(1/3)(90)(4.44)^2(pi/1800)^2 = 0.5 x 0.33 x 90 x 19.7136 x 3.05 x 10^-6

KE = 0.00089 J

For hour hand

I = (1/3)(58.2)(2.79)^2 = 0.33 x 58.2 x 2.79^2 = 149.5

w = 1 rev/12hour = 1 rev/(12x3600sec) = 2pi/ 12x3600 = pi/21600 rad/s

KE = 1/2(1/3)(90)(4.44)^2(pi/21600)^2 = 0.5 x 0.33 x 90 x 19.7136 x 2.12 x 10^-8

KE = 5.85 x 10^-6 J

Therefore total kinetic energy = 895.85 x 10^-6 J

4 0
4 years ago
Traditional Indonesian music uses an ensemble called a gamelan that is based on tuned percussion instruments somewhat like gongs
Vlada [557]

Answer:

n = 10 beats

Explanation:

Given:

- Frequency of note f1 = 151 Hz

- Frequency of note f2 = 155 Hz

- The total time they ring t = 2.5 s

Find:

How many beats are heard

Solution:

- The frequency of beat (fb) is the difference between the two frequencies of notes as follows:

                                fb = f2 - f1

                                fb = 155 - 151

                                fb = 4 Hz

- The number of beats per second is also called beat frequency:

                                n = fb*t

                                n = 4*2.5

                                n = 10 beats

           

3 0
4 years ago
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kari74 [83]
I can help you draw the ray diagram.
7 0
3 years ago
The drawing shows two long, thin wires that carry currents in the positive z direction. Both wires are parallel to the z axis. T
erica [24]

Answer:

The magnitude of the magnetic field at the origin is 2.56\times 10^{-6}\ T.

Explanation:

Given :

50-A wire is in the x-z plane and is 5 m from the z axis.

Also , 40-A wire is in the y-z plane and is 4 m from the z axis.

Now , since both the wire are perpendicular to each other .

Therefore , magnetic field are also perpendicular to each other .

Magnetic field at origin due to wire 1 is :

B_1=\dfrac{\mu_oI_1}{2\pi R_1}\\\\B_1=\dfrac{(50)\mu_o}{2\pi( 5)}\\\\B_1=\dfrac{5\mu_o}{\pi}

Magnetic field at origin due to wire 2 is :

B_2=\dfrac{\mu_oI_2}{2\pi R_2}\\\\B_2=\dfrac{(40)\mu_o}{2\pi( 4)}\\\\B_2=\dfrac{4\mu_o}{\pi}

Now , therefore net magnetic field is :

B=\sqrt{B_1^2+B_2^2}\\\\B=\sqrt{(\dfrac{5\mu_o}{\pi})^2+(\dfrac{4\mu_o}{\pi})^2}\\\\B=\dfrac{\sqrt{41}\mu_o}{\pi}

Putting value of \mu_o=4\pi \times 10^{-7}\ H/m

We get ,

B=\sqrt{41}\times 4\times 10^{-7}\\B=2.56\times 10^{-6}\ T

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic field at the origin is 2.56\times 10^{-6}\ T.

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3 years ago
Why do concave lenses always form virtual images?
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