Step-by-step explanation:
1.5 mi = 2 and 1/4 min
In 43 minutes:
43 ÷ 2.15 = 20 2.15 = 2 and 1/4 min
Now you have to multiply 1.5 by 20
1.5 x 20 = 30
In 1 hour (60 minutes):
60 ÷ 2.15 = 27.9
Now you have to multiply 1.5 by 27.9
1.5 x 27.9 = 41.85
Hope this was helpful :)
Answer:
sex kaise kare aur bata ky chal raha tha aur bata ky chal raha h
Wait so are the sides of the octagon 9 inches each or do we have to find that?
Step-by-step explanation:
Molly ran 1/4 of a mile in 1 minute, i.e.
1/4 mile : 1 minute
Multiply both sides by 4 to get time for one mile
1 mile : 4 minutes
Multiply by 4 again to get time for 4 miles
4 miles = 4*4 = 16 minutes.
So it takes Molly 16 minutes to run four miles.
Answer:
(D) "...because he will not have to pay any interest on his purchases during the introductory APR period."
Step-by-step explanation:
There may be many reasons for John to choose one over the other depending on his future and planned usage patterns. However, answer the (D) is the only correct one in terms of stating a reason that is actually supported by the information in the question. Specifically, there is 0% APR for card B.
What's wrong with the other choices:
Choice A: incorrect statement re APR after intro period (is not 1%); B: incorrect statement re cash advance (is not 0%); C: statement is not supported by anything in the information given (it is an assumption, and is unlikely).
