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2 years ago

NEED HELP ASAP. ONLY ANSWER IF YOU CAN EXPLAIN THIS CORRECTLY

Mathematics

1 answer:

ss7ja [257]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

B. f(x) and g(x) have a common x-intercept.

Step-by-step explanation:

When x = 2 for g(x), the output is 0.

When x = 2 for f(x), the output is also 0.

So, that would mean that f(x) and g(x) have a common x-intercept.

<h2><u><em>PLEASE MARK AS BRAINLIEST!!!!!</em></u></h2>

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3 years ago

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Answer:

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