Someone Please Help a

Allushta [10]

How am I supposed to answer that if I can't get the graph to you?

3 0

2 years ago

Travelers who fail to cancel their hotel reservations when they have no intention of showing up are commonly referred to as no-s

notsponge [240]

Answer:

a) 0.0523 = 5.23% probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows.

b) 0 is the most likely value for X.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each traveler who made a reservation, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they show up, or they do not. The probability of a traveler showing up is independent of other travelers. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

No-show rate of 10%.

This means that $p = 0.1$

Four travelers who have made hotel reservations in this study.

This means that $n = 4$

a) What is the probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows?

This is $P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.1)^{2}.(0.9)^{2} = 0.0486$

$P(X = 3) = C_{4,3}.(0.1)^{3}.(0.9)^{1} = 0.0036$

$P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.1)^{4}.(0.9)^{0} = 0.0001$

$P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0.0486 + 0.0036 + 0.0001 = 0.0523$

0.0523 = 5.23% probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows.

b) What is the most likely value for X?

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{4,0}.(0.1)^{0}.(0.9)^{4} = 0.6561$

$P(X = 1) = C_{4,1}.(0.1)^{1}.(0.9)^{3} = 0.2916$

$P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.1)^{2}.(0.9)^{2} = 0.0486$

$P(X = 3) = C_{4,3}.(0.1)^{3}.(0.9)^{1} = 0.0036$

$P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.1)^{4}.(0.9)^{0} = 0.0001$

X = 0 has the highest probability, which means that 0 is the most likely value for X.

7 0

2 years ago

Thetime(inhours)requiredtorepairamachineis an exponentially distributed random variable with parameter λ = 1 . What is 2 (a) the

mihalych1998 [28]

Answer:

a) 0.1353

b) 0.3679

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's start by defining the random variable T.

T : ''The time (in hours) required to repair a machine''

T ~ exp (λ)

T ~ exp (1)

The probability density function for the exponential distribution is

(In the equation I replaced λ = L)

$f(x)=Le^{-Lx}$

With L > 0 and x ≥ 0

In this exercise λ = 1 ⇒

$f(x)=e^{-x}$

For a)

$P(T>2)$

$P(T>2)=1-P(T\leq 2)$

$P(T>2)=1-\int\limits^2_0 {e^{-x} } \, dx$

$P(T>2)=1-(-e^{-2}+1)$

$P(T>2)=e^{-2}=0.1353$

For b)

$P(T\geq 10/T>9)$

The event (T ≥ 10 / T > 9) is equivalent to the event T ≥ 1 so they have the same probability of occur

$P(T\geq 10/T>9)=P(T\geq 1)$

$P(T\geq 1)=1-P(T$

$P(T\geq 1)=1-(-e^{-1}+1)=e^{-1}=0.3679$

4 0

2 years ago

The function h(t) = -4.9t2 + h0 gives the height (h), in meters, of an object t seconds after it falls from an initial height (h

oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

-4.9t^2 + 60

3 0

3 years ago

to find the final cost of the shoes, the $15 coupon can be applied first and then the 20% discount, or the 20% discount can be a

guapka [62]

First apply 20% discount then applied $15 coupon combination gives better deal.

As given in the question,

Let final cost of the shoes be $100

First apply $15 coupon then applied 20% discount

100-15=$85

Now, 20% of 85= (20/100) × 85

=$17

Final price, 85 - 17 =$68

First apply 20% discount then applied $15 coupon

Now, 20% of 100= (20/100) × 100

=$20

100-20 = $80

Apply coupon $15

Final price, 80 - 15 =$65

Therefore, first apply 20% discount then applied $15 coupon combination gives better deal.

Learn more about discount here

brainly.com/question/3541148

#SPJ4

8 0

1 year ago