Answer:
The probability of the heads up on the first three flips and not on the last two flips will be 1/32.
Step-by-step explanation:
As, the probability of head up when one time coin is flipped is 1/2. And it is said in the question that you must get heads in the first three flips.
So, for the first three flips the probability is = (1/2)^3 = 1/8
And for the last two flips you want to get not heads up.
Then, the probability is = (1/2)^2 = 1/4
Hence, your overall probability will be = 1/8 × 1/4 = 1/32 .
Answer:
6 would be the overlined number
Step-by-step explanation:
It’s d because if you reverse -2 to go up the graph instead of down you get 0, then 2, then 4
Y =1/3x + 4 bc it rises by 1 over 3 and it crosses y axis at 4
Answer:
The correct option is d. $ 785
Step-by-step explanation:
Since,
Where,
C = Annual coupon payment,
FV = Face value,
M = Maturity in years,
YTM = yield to maturity,
Here,
FV = $ 1,000,
C = 7% of 1000 = 
= 70,
M = 20 years,
YTM = 9.4% = 0.094,
By substituting the values,
= $ 785.3454 ( Using calculator )
≈ $ 785
Hence, OPTION d. is correct.
