Answer:
Yes.
Step-by-step explanation:
When 
,
.
32/40 is the fraction to 32:40 and if u simplify it, it would be 4/5
Let's draw!
H 1 T
HT 2 HT
HTHT 3 HTHT
HTHTHT 4 HTHTHT
HTHTHTHT 5 HTHTHTHT
HTHTHTHTHT 6 HTHTHTHTHT
You can count the probabilities using this.
HHHHTT
HHHTHT
HHTHHT
HHTHTH
HHHTTH
HTHHHT
HTTHHH
HTHTHH
HTHHTH
THHHHT
THHHTH
THHTHH
THTHHH
TTHHHH
Therefore, I think the probability is 14/64. Not sure so check my work.
14 combinations
64 outcomes (2+4+8+16+32+64 or 2^n)
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Your cousin wants to buy a coat and can spend at most $95. This means that the total amount of money that he can spend in buying the coat would be lesser than or equal to $95.
He has a coupon for $20 off any coat. Let x represent the cost of the coat. The amount that he can pay for the coat will be x - 20.
The inequality to find the original prices of coats he can afford would be
x - 20 lesser than or equal to 95
