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zavuch27 [327]
3 years ago
6

I have nothing to say about this because the question is in the picture

Mathematics
1 answer:
anyanavicka [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

relation between X and Y is just nothing both are same

You might be interested in
Ginny’s favorite cookie recipe requires 1 1/2 cups of sugar to make 24 cookies. How much sugar does Ginny need to make 36 of the
Delicious77 [7]

Ginny needs 2\frac{1}{4} cups of sugar to make 36 cookies.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Sugar cups required for 24 cookies = 1\frac{1}{2}=\frac{3}{2}\ cups

Ratio of sugar cups to cookies = \frac{3}{2}:24

Let,

x be the number of cups needed for 36 cookies.

Ratio of sugar cups to cookies = x:36\\

Using proportion;

Ratio of sugar cups to cookies :: Ratio of sugar cups to cookies

\frac{3}{2}:24::x:36

Product of mean = Product of extreme

24*x=\frac{3}{2}*36\\24x=54

Dividing both sides by 24

\frac{24x}{24}=\frac{54}{24}\\x=\frac{9}{4}\\x=2\frac{1}{4}

Ginny needs 2\frac{1}{4} cups of sugar to make 36 cookies.

Keywords: fraction, proportion

Learn more about fractions at:

  • brainly.com/question/96882
  • brainly.com/question/96535

#LearnwithBrainly

7 0
3 years ago
Help me please please​
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

  3.88 nm

Step-by-step explanation:

The angle at Port Latta between the actual direction of travel and the destination at Lookout Point is 90° -75° = 15°. The sine function relates the angle, the side opposite, and the hypotenuse of a right triangle, so you have ...

  sin(15°) = (distance to Lookout Point)/(15 nm)

Solving for the desired distance, we have ...

  distance to Lookout Point = (15 nm)sin(15°) = 3.88 nm

The yacht is 3.88 nautical miles from Lookout Point.

3 0
3 years ago
Use the Trapezoidal Rule, the Midpoint Rule, and Simpson's Rule to approximate the given integral with the specified value of n.
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Split up the integration interval into 4 subintervals:

\left[0,\dfrac\pi8\right],\left[\dfrac\pi8,\dfrac\pi4\right],\left[\dfrac\pi4,\dfrac{3\pi}8\right],\left[\dfrac{3\pi}8,\dfrac\pi2\right]

The left and right endpoints of the i-th subinterval, respectively, are

\ell_i=\dfrac{i-1}4\left(\dfrac\pi2-0\right)=\dfrac{(i-1)\pi}8

r_i=\dfrac i4\left(\dfrac\pi2-0\right)=\dfrac{i\pi}8

for 1\le i\le4, and the respective midpoints are

m_i=\dfrac{\ell_i+r_i}2=\dfrac{(2i-1)\pi}8

  • Trapezoidal rule

We approximate the (signed) area under the curve over each subinterval by

T_i=\dfrac{f(\ell_i)+f(r_i)}2(\ell_i-r_i)

so that

\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac3{1+\cos x}\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=1}^4T_i\approx\boxed{3.038078}

  • Midpoint rule

We approximate the area for each subinterval by

M_i=f(m_i)(\ell_i-r_i)

so that

\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac3{1+\cos x}\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=1}^4M_i\approx\boxed{2.981137}

  • Simpson's rule

We first interpolate the integrand over each subinterval by a quadratic polynomial p_i(x), where

p_i(x)=f(\ell_i)\dfrac{(x-m_i)(x-r_i)}{(\ell_i-m_i)(\ell_i-r_i)}+f(m)\dfrac{(x-\ell_i)(x-r_i)}{(m_i-\ell_i)(m_i-r_i)}+f(r_i)\dfrac{(x-\ell_i)(x-m_i)}{(r_i-\ell_i)(r_i-m_i)}

so that

\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac3{1+\cos x}\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=1}^4\int_{\ell_i}^{r_i}p_i(x)\,\mathrm dx

It so happens that the integral of p_i(x) reduces nicely to the form you're probably more familiar with,

S_i=\displaystyle\int_{\ell_i}^{r_i}p_i(x)\,\mathrm dx=\frac{r_i-\ell_i}6(f(\ell_i)+4f(m_i)+f(r_i))

Then the integral is approximately

\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac3{1+\cos x}\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=1}^4S_i\approx\boxed{3.000117}

Compare these to the actual value of the integral, 3. I've included plots of the approximations below.

3 0
3 years ago
The point is located three units to the left of the y-axis<br> and four units above the x-axis.
padilas [110]
(-3,4). Thats the answer.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Question 1 of 10
Sonbull [250]

The statement regarding the expansion of (x + y)" that is correct is D. The coefficients of yn - 1 and yn – 1 both equal 1.

<h3>How to expand?</h3>

It should be noted that for any positive integer, n, the expression of (x + y)^n will be C(n,0)x^n + C+n, 1)x^n-1 .... C(n, n)y^n.

Here, the statement regarding the expansion of (x + y)" that is correct is that the coefficients of yn - 1 and yn – 1 is both equal to 1.

Learn more about expansion on:

brainly.com/question/29114

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
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