I just started this chapter someone help me with these 2 questions

Mathematics

1 answer:

xxMikexx [17]2 years ago

5 0

Answers: For the yellow one it’s 14
For the red one it’s 15

Long answer: so the way to do this is to find the ratio. So you look at the filled shape for the yellow ones case it’s the smaller one and the sides have a ratio of 9:6 or 3:2, now since on the other similar shape the 9 lines up with 21 we can divide that by 3 getting us 7 and multiply that by 2 and get 14.

For the red one it’s the same process, 8:6=4:3 so we and we divide 20 by 4 and get 5, then multiply that be 3 and get 15.

Please mark brainliest if this helps.

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The scale for a map is 20 miles = 1/2 inch. The distance between two towns on the map is 3 3/4 inches. What is the actual distan

zubka84 [21]

Answer:

150 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

If 1/2 of an inch is 20 miles, we can assume that 1/4 of an inch is 10 miles, since half of 1/2 is 1/4 and 1/2 of 20 is 10.

Equipped with this information, we can divide 3 by 1/2 or multiply 3 by the reciprical, 2/1 to get how much we should multiply 20 by.

3*2=6

20*6=120

Then we can multiply 10 by 3 and add that on our answer, since there are still 3/4s left and 1/4=10 miles.

10*3=30

120+30=150

The actual distance is 150 miles.

Hope this helps!

4 0

3 years ago

Monday 2/3 of the team practiced, Tues 7/8, Wed 1/2,Thurs 3/4. On which day were the most team members present at practice?

MrMuchimi

Tuesday.

1/2 =50%, 3/4=75% 2/3=66.6% and so forth.

8 0

3 years ago

10 normal six sided dice are thrown.Find the probability of obtaining at least 8 failuresif a success is 5 or 6.

erastova [34]

Answer:

0.2992 = 29.92% probability of obtaining at least 8 failures.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each dice, there are only two possible outcomes. Either a failure is obtained, or a success is obtained. Trials are independent, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$