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Svetlanka [38]
2 years ago
11

Why are high tides found simultaneously on opposite sides of earth?

Physics
1 answer:
dexar [7]2 years ago
7 0

Explanation:

Why are high tides found simultaneously on opposite sides of Earth? The tidal bulges occur on both sides of Earth that are aligned with the tide-generating body. The ocean water experiencing high tide rotates around Earth on a 12-hour cycle.

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At divergent boundaries, hot mantle rock rises and<br> occurs.
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The answer is decompression melting
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A plane is going at a speed of 300 km/h at 63 W of N. The wind hits the plane at a direction of 65 km/h at 52 S of E. What is th
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It’s around the g force so it’s gonna be around 54 km/h
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1 year ago
PLEASE HELP ASAP!!! CORRECT ANSWER ONLY PLEASE!!!
Anon25 [30]

In several of the questions you've posted during the past day, we've already said that a wave with larger amplitude carries more energy.  That idea is easy to apply to this question.

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3 years ago
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The site from which an airplane takes off is the origin. The X axis points east, the y axis points straight up. The position and
Contact [7]

Answer:

d = 3.5*10^4 m

Explanation:

In order to calculate the displacement of the airplane you need only the information about the initial position and final position of the airplane. THe initial position is at the origin (0,0,0) and the final position is given by the following vector:

\vec{r}=(1.21*10^3\hat{i}+3.45*10^4\hat{j})m

The displacement of the airplane is obtained by using the general form of the Pythagoras theorem:

d=\sqrt{(x-x_o)^2+(y-y_o)^2}   (1)

where x any are the coordinates of the final position of the airplane and xo and yo the coordinates of the initial position. You replace the values of all variables in the equation (1):

d=\sqrt{(1.12*10^3-0)^2+(3.45*10^4-0)^2}=3.45*10^4m

hence, the displacement of the airplane is 3.45*10^4 m

6 0
2 years ago
A uniformly charged, one-dimensional rod of length L has total positive charge Q. Itsleft end is located at x = ????L and its ri
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

|\vec{F}| = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQ}{L}(\ln(L+x_0)-\ln(x_0))

Explanation:

The force on the point charge q exerted by the rod can be found by Coulomb's Law.

\vec{F} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{q_1q_2}{r^2}\^r

Unfortunately, Coulomb's Law is valid for points charges only, and the rod is not a point charge.

In this case, we have to choose an infinitesimal portion on the rod, which is basically a point, and calculate the force exerted by this point, then integrate this small force (dF) over the entire rod.

We will choose an infinitesimal portion from a distance 'x' from the origin, and the length of this portion will be denoted as 'dx'. The charge of this small portion will be 'dq'.

Applying Coulomb's Law:

d\vec{F} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qdq}{x + x_0}(\^x)

The direction of the force on 'q' is to the right, since both charges are positive, and they repel each other.

Now, we have to write 'dq' in term of the known quantities.

\frac{Q}{L} = \frac{dq}{dx}\\dq = \frac{Qdx}{L}

Now, substitute this into 'dF':

d\vec{F} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQdx}{L(x+x_0)}(\^x)

Now we can integrate dF over the rod.

\vec{F} = \int{d\vec{F}} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQ}{L}\int\limits^{L}_0 {\frac{1}{x+x_0}} \, dx = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQ}{L}(\ln(L+x_0)-\ln(x_0))(\^x)

4 0
2 years ago
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