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Ad libitum [116K]
2 years ago
6

1*2+2+1+5 by how much?

Physics
1 answer:
kozerog [31]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

10

Explanation:

1*2+2+1+5=10

1x2+2+1+5=10

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Which units are used to measure both velocity and speed? Select three options.
xz_007 [3.2K]
M/s, km/h, and mph are all used to measure these quantities
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A particle is moving along the x-axis so that its position at any time t is greater than and equal to 0 is given by x(t)=2te^-t?
erastovalidia [21]
For speed you can differentiate the equation, for acceleration you can again differentiate the equation .
at t=0 the particle is slowing down , when you get equation for velocity put t=0 then only -1 is left
6 0
3 years ago
Consider a cyclotron in which a beam of particles of positive charge q and mass m is moving along a circular path restricted by
Ulleksa [173]

A) v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B) r=\frac{mv}{qB}

C) T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

D) \omega=\frac{qB}{m}

E) r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

Explanation:

A)

When the particle is accelerated by a potential difference V, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy of the particle is given by:

\Delta U = qV

where

q is the charge of the particle (positive)

On the other hand, the change (increase) in the kinetic energy of the particle is (assuming it starts from rest):

\Delta K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m is the mass of the particle

v is its final speed

According to the law of conservation of energy, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy, so:

qV=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

And solving for v, we find the speed v at which the particle enters the cyclotron:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B)

When the particle enters the region of magnetic field in the cyclotron, the magnetic force acting on the particle (acting perpendicular to the motion of the particle) is

F=qvB

where B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as centripetal force, so we can write:

F=m\frac{v^2}{r}

where r is the radius of the orbit.

Since the two forces are equal, we can equate them:

qvB=m\frac{v^2}{r}

And solving for r, we find the radius of the orbit:

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (1)

C)

The period of revolution of a particle in circular motion is the time taken by the particle to complete one revolution.

It can be calculated as the ratio between the length of the circumference (2\pi r) and the velocity of the particle (v):

T=\frac{2\pi r}{v} (2)

From eq.(1), we can rewrite the velocity of the particle as

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

Substituting into(2), we can rewrite the period of revolution of the particle as:

T=\frac{2\pi r}{(\frac{qBr}{m})}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

And we see that this period is indepedent on the velocity.

D)

The angular frequency of a particle in circular motion is related to the period by the formula

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T} (3)

where T is the period.

The period has been found in part C:

T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

Therefore, substituting into (3), we find an expression for the angular frequency of motion:

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{(\frac{2\pi m}{qB})}=\frac{qB}{m}

And we see that also the angular frequency does not depend on the velocity.

E)

For this part, we use again the relationship found in part B:

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

which can be rewritten as

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (4)

The kinetic energy of the particle is written as

K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

So, from this we can find another expression for the velocity:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}

And substitutin into (4), we find:

r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

So, this is the radius of the cyclotron that we must have in order to accelerate the particles at a kinetic energy of K.

Note that for a cyclotron, the acceleration of the particles is achevied in the gap between the dees, where an electric field is applied (in fact, the magnetic field does zero work on the particle, so it does not provide acceleration).

6 0
3 years ago
Enter your answer in the provided box. The mathematical equation for studying the photoelectric effect is hν = W + 1 2 meu2 wher
siniylev [52]

Answer:

v = 4.44 \times 10^5 m/s

Explanation:

By Einstein's Equation of photoelectric effect we know that

h\nu = W + \frac{1}{2}mv^2

here we know that

h\nu = energy of the photons incident on the metal

W = minimum energy required to remove photons from metal

\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = kinetic energy of the electrons ejected out of the plate

now we know that it requires 351 nm wavelength of photons to just eject out the electrons

so we can say

W = \frac{hc}{351 nm}

here we know that

hc = 1242 eV-nm

now we have

W = \frac{1242}{351} = 3.54 eV

now by energy equation above when photon of 303 nm incident on the surface

\frac{1242 eV-nm}{303 nm} = 3.54 eV + \frac{1}{2}(9.1 \times 10^{-31})v^2

4.1 eV = 3.54 eV + (4.55 \times 10^{-31}) v^2

(4.1 - 3.54)\times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}) = (4.55 \times 10^{-31}) v^2

8.96 \times 10^{-20} = (4.55 \times 10^{-31}) v^2

v = 4.44 \times 10^5 m/s

6 0
3 years ago
How much force is required to accelerate 3 kg at 3 m/sec^2
bogdanovich [222]

Answer:

F=?

a=3m/s2

m=3kg

F=ma=[3][3]=9 N

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
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