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Dvinal [7]
3 years ago
9

What angle relationship describes angles BCE and CED?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sophie [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Alternate Interior Angles

Step-by-step explanation:

You can see that the angles are on alternate sides of line segment CE.

They are also interior, or inside lines BC, and ED

This makes them Alternate Interior Angles

-Chetan K

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In November 2010, an article titled "Frequency of Colds Dramatically Cut with Regular Exercise" appeared in Medical News Today.
disa [49]

Answer:

Part a

For the given study, the explanatory variable or independent variable is given as regularity or frequency of exercise. This variable is classify as categorical variable because variable is divided into two categories such as whether participant exercise 5 or more days a week or not.

Part b

For the given study, the response variable or dependent variable is given as frequency of colds. This variable is classified as quantitative variable because we measure the quantities or frequency of number of colds.

Part c

A confounding variable for this research study is given as incidence of upper respiratory tract infections that provides an alternative explanation for the lower frequency of colds among those who exercised 5 or more days per week, compared to those who were largely sedentary. This confounding variable is categorical in nature.

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3 years ago
Helpppppp!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
lions [1.4K]
Your answer is D. Hope this helps!


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What is n/8=11/5 solve for n<br><br><br> #youngboy comment
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n should be 8 according to mathmatical laws

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From experience, it is known that on average 10% of welds performed by a particular welder are defective. if this welder is requ
bulgar [2K]
Binomial distribution can be used because the situation satisfies all the following conditions:1. Number of trials is known and remains constant (n)2. Each trial is Bernoulli (i.e. exactly two possible outcomes) (success/failure)3. Probability is known and remains constant throughout the trials (p)4. All trials are random and independent of the othersThe number of successes, x, is then given byP(x)=C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}whereC(n,x)=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}
Here we're given
p=0.10  [ success = defective ]
n=3

(a) x=0
P(x)=C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
=C(3,0)0.1^0(1-0.1)^{3-0}
=1(1)(0.729)
=0.729

(b) x=2
P(x)=C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
=C(3,2)0.1^2(1-0.1)^{3-2}
=3(0.01)(0.9)
=0.027

(c) x &ge; 2
P(x)=\sum_{x=2}^3C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
=P(2)+P(3)
=C(n,2)p^2(1-p)^{n-2}+C(n,3)p^3(1-p)^{n-3}
=C(3,2)0.1^2(1-0.1)^{3-2}+C(3,3)0.1^3(1-0.1)^{3-3}
=3(0.01)(0.9)+1(0.001)1
=0.027+0.001
=0.028


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It will be $105 a month
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