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Sav [38]
2 years ago
9

i need step by step explaniton. judy has $3,024 dollars in her bank account she is planning to spend this money on buying ticket

s to disney world for her and 11 of her friends. two of judy's friends decided to help but the tickets and offered her $1,00 each. how munch did each ticket cost. (round the answer to the nearest whole number) this is a long divison problem.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Gre4nikov [31]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

uhh judy has $3.024 in her bank acc

She is buying tickets for 11 friends and including herself too that means 12

Two friends decided help to buy the tickets and offered $100 each i.e $200

So I'm guessing that the cost price of one ticket is $100

Now than since 2 people paid their ticket cost than that means only 10 people left

Than for buying tickets for 10 people would cost (10×100=1000)

So I guess buying the tickets cost 1000 or if we add other two people's cost than that makes 1200

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2 years ago
f(x) = 3 cos(x) 0 ≤ x ≤ 3π/4 evaluate the Riemann sum with n = 6, taking the sample points to be left endpoints. (Round your ans
Kruka [31]

Answer:

\int_{0}^{\frac{3 \pi}{4}}3 \cos{\left(x \right)}\ dx\approx 3.099558

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to find the Riemann sum for \int_{0}^{\frac{3 \pi}{4}}3 \cos{\left(x \right)}\ dx with n = 6, using left endpoints.

The Left Riemann Sum uses the left endpoints of a sub-interval:

\int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx\approx\Delta{x}\left(f(x_0)+f(x_1)+2f(x_2)+...+f(x_{n-2})+f(x_{n-1})\right)

where \Delta{x}=\frac{b-a}{n}.

Step 1: Find \Delta{x}

We have that a=0, b=\frac{3\pi }{4}, n=6

Therefore, \Delta{x}=\frac{\frac{3 \pi}{4}-0}{6}=\frac{\pi}{8}

Step 2: Divide the interval \left[0,\frac{3 \pi}{4}\right] into n = 6 sub-intervals of length \Delta{x}=\frac{\pi}{8}

a=\left[0, \frac{\pi}{8}\right], \left[\frac{\pi}{8}, \frac{\pi}{4}\right], \left[\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{3 \pi}{8}\right], \left[\frac{3 \pi}{8}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right], \left[\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{5 \pi}{8}\right], \left[\frac{5 \pi}{8}, \frac{3 \pi}{4}\right]=b

Step 3: Evaluate the function at the left endpoints

f\left(x_{0}\right)=f(a)=f\left(0\right)=3=3

f\left(x_{1}\right)=f\left(\frac{\pi}{8}\right)=3 \sqrt{\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4} + \frac{1}{2}}=2.77163859753386

f\left(x_{2}\right)=f\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\frac{3 \sqrt{2}}{2}=2.12132034355964

f\left(x_{3}\right)=f\left(\frac{3 \pi}{8}\right)=3 \sqrt{\frac{1}{2} - \frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}}=1.14805029709527

f\left(x_{4}\right)=f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=0=0

f\left(x_{5}\right)=f\left(\frac{5 \pi}{8}\right)=- 3 \sqrt{\frac{1}{2} - \frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}}=-1.14805029709527

Step 4: Apply the Left Riemann Sum formula

\frac{\pi}{8}(3+2.77163859753386+2.12132034355964+1.14805029709527+0-1.14805029709527)=3.09955772805315

\int_{0}^{\frac{3 \pi}{4}}3 \cos{\left(x \right)}\ dx\approx 3.099558

5 0
2 years ago
Reuben made 4 identical necklaces, each having beads and a pendant. The total cost of the beads and pendants for all 4 necklaces
zysi [14]

Answer:

$3.90

Step-by-step explanation:

The total cost was $24.40.

We know the cost for beads for each necklace is also $2.20, multiply this by four to find the cost of the beads for all the necklaces.

$2.20 × 4 = $8.80

Now we will subtract this from the total price.

$24.40 - $8.80 = $15.60

$15.60 Is the remaining cost for the pendants of all four necklaces. We will now divide this by four to find the price of a single pendant.

$15.60 ÷ 4 = $3.90

<u>This means the cost of each pendant is $3.90</u>

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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