All categories

2 years ago

In a triangle, the angle opposite to the longer side is

Mathematics

1 answer:

vazorg [7]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Adjacent angle is the name of the angle or opposite angle.

You might be interested in

Write the equation of a line that contains (2,−2) and perpendicular to another line with slope −1. (20 POINTS)

Kay [80]

Y=mx+b or -2=-1 x 2+b, b= -2(-1)(2) b=0

Therefore the equation of the line is

y=-1x

8 0

2 years ago

The graph of function g(x) is a transformation of the graph of function f(x) = x2.g(x) =

mariarad [96]

Given:

The graph of function g(x) is a transformation of the graph of function f(x) = x²

As shown: the graph of g(x) is open down

So, we will reflect f(x) over the x-axis, the function will be ⇒ -x²

And there is horizontal compression so, the factor of compression will be > 1

So, the function will be ⇒ -2x²

Finally, there is a vertical shift down 3 units

So,

$g(x)=-2x^2-3$

6 0

1 year ago

If A denotes some event, what does Upper A overbar denote? If P(A)equals0.999, what is the value of P(Upper A overbar)? Wh

meriva

Answer:

<h3>The event $P(\overline{A})$ denotes the complement of event A.</h3><h3>The value of $P(\overline{A})$ is 0.001</h3>

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that A denotes some event .

And also given that P(A)=0.999

<h3>To find the value of $P(\overline{A})$ :</h3>

Here the event $P(\overline{A})$ denotes the complement of event A Therefore $P(\overline{A})$ contains all the events that does not occur in A.

We know that the total probability is 1

So we have that

$P(A)+P(\overline{A})=1$

$P(\overline{A})=1 -P(A)$

$=1-0.999$

$=0.001$

Hence the complement of event A is $P(\overline{A})=0.001$

<h3>Therefore the value is $P(\overline{A})=0.001$ </h3>

6 0

3 years ago

What is 7/6 reduced to

evablogger [386]

7/6 is 1 and 1/6 (1 1/6) as a reduced fraction. 7/6 is an improper fraction. So, how many times does 6 go into 7, it goes into it one time and there is one remainder.

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Stephanie has a homeowners insurance policy for her $355,000 home with an annual premium of $0.42 per $100 of value and a deduct

frosja888 [35]

Answer:

$0.28 per 100 of value (B)

Step-by-step explanation:

Stephanie has a homeowner insurance policy of $355,000

Annual premium = $0.42 per 100

There is a deductible of $500

Stephanie has an annual out of pocket expense of

[($355,000/100) x $0.42] + $500 = $1,991

From the question, Stephanie now wants a new deductible amount of 1000.

Let X be the new annual premium

[(355,000X) / 100] + 1000 = 1991

3550X + 1000 = 1991

3550X = 1991 -1000

3550X = 991

X = 991/3550

X = 0.2791

X = 0.28 ( approximately)

The new annual premium is $0.28 per 100 of value

5 0

3 years ago