Is the statement “The absolute value of a number is always greater than its opposite” true?

Mathematics

1 answer:

german2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

No; the absolute value of a negative number is equal to its opposite

Step-by-step explanation:

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Maureen went on a 3 day 50 mile trip. the first day she biked 17 7/8 miles . the second day she biked 18 5/7 miles. How many mil

Inessa [10]

To find the miles for 3rd day, we take away the miles she biked for the first two day from the total.

$50 - 17 \dfrac{7}{8} - 18\dfrac{5}{7}$

$=50 - 17 \dfrac{7 \times 7}{8 \times 7} - 18\dfrac{5 \times 8}{7 \times 8}$

$= 48 \dfrac{112}{56} - 17 \dfrac{49}{56} - 18\dfrac{40}{56}$

$= 13 \dfrac{23}{56} \text { miles }$

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Answer: She traveled 13 23/56 miles on the third day.
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7 0

3 years ago

Consider the function graphed below.

aivan3 [116]

Answer:

B. (see attached)

Step-by-step explanation:

All the answers agree that the function is x² for x < 1. Where they disagree is in the slope and y-intercept of the linear portion for x > 1.

The line has a slope that is less than 1 unit of rise for 1 unit of run, so will not be selections A or C, which have slopes of 3.

The y-intercept is clearly positive if we extend the line to the left until it reaches the y-axis. This eliminates selection D from consideration, leaving only selection B.