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elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]
3 years ago
5

Gemma said, "−6 is closer to 0 than 4 because it is the smaller number."Is Gemma’s statement true or false? Give a math argument

to support your answer.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Serjik [45]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

False.

Step-by-step explanation:

I believe this is a false statement, due to the fact '6' is larger than four. In this case, the six is negative. Therefore, negative numbers are always closer to zero than positive numbers.

Hope it helped :)

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The ages (in years) of the 6 employees at a particular computer store are 44, 46, 40, 34, 29, 41
son4ous [18]
step 1
<span>compute the average: add the values and divide by 6
Average =(44+ 46+40+34+29+41)/6=39

step 2
</span><span>Compute the deviations from the average
dev: (44-39)=5,
</span>dev: (46-39)=7
dev: (40-39)=1
dev: (34-39)=-5
dev: (29-39)=-10
dev: (41-39)=2

step 3
<span>Square the deviations and add
sum (dev^2): 5^2+7^2+1</span>^2+-5^2+-10^2+2^2
sum (dev^2): 25+49+1+25+100+4-----> 204

step 4
<span>Divide step #3 by the sample size=6
(typically you divide by sample size-1 to get the sample standard deviation,
 but you are assuming the 6 values are the population,
so
no need to subtract 1, from the sample size.
This result is the variance
Variance =204/6=34

step 5
</span><span>Standard deviation = sqrt(variance)
standard deviation= </span>√<span>(34)------> 5.83

the answer is
5.83</span>


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