Answer:
The answer is: 
Step-by-step explanation:
angles 1 and 5 are equal to each other since 
so 
Answer:
1/8
Step-by-step explanation:
1/6 × 3/4
Multiply across top, then bottom
1×3=3
6×4=24
Then reduce if necessary.
3/24
Divide top and bottom by 3
3÷3=1
24÷3=8
You should get 1/8
Answer:
Asnwer is A
Step-by-step explanation:
since the correlation between the FFQ and DR is 0.89
x y xy

8.26 1.68 13.8768 68. 2276 2.8224
0.83 0 0 06889 0
20.13 15.1 303.963 405.2169 228.01
11.16 7.49 83.5884 124.5456 56.1001
7.18 12.84 92.1912 51.5524 164.8656
1.76 0 0 3.0976 0
22.46 25.06 567.8596 513.4756 628.0036
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∑
= ∑
= ∑
= ∑
= ∑
=
71.98 62.17 1061.479 1166.8046 1079.8017
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Correlation Coefficient or Pearson Correlation is given by:
the rest calculation is in the attached image
There is about 87658.1. there are 8765.81 in one year so multiply by ten to get 87658.1.
Both these lines are linear and have the same slope, just different y-intercepts. This means one line is shifted higher than the other. y=x+8 is 14 units higher than y=x-6. The answer to you question therefore is 14 units!