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Sphinxa [80]
2 years ago
7

If A can prove, however conclusively, that he may of right enslave B, why may not B snatch the same argument and prove equally t

hat he may enslave A? You say A is white and B is black. It is colour, then; the lighter having the right to enslave the darker? Take care. By this rule you are to be slave to the first man you meet with a fairer skin than your own.
You do not mean colour exactly? You mean the whites are intellectually the superiors of the blacks, and therefore have the right to enslave them? Take care again. By this rule you are to be slave to the first man you meet with an intellect superior to your own.

But, say you, it is a question of interest, and if you make it your interest you have the right to enslave another. Very well. And if he can make it his interest he has the right to enslave you.
English
1 answer:
tia_tia [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

nbcghchgchgcghcgcjgcj

Explanation:

bm b j jh hj jh jh hj jh jh hj  hj

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Edited passage (corrections are in bold, everything else is fine):

Considered one of the most significant documents in the history of the democracy, the Magna Carta was written by thirteenth-century barons to protect their rights against King John of England. During the American Revolution, the document inspired the colonists in their pursuit of freedom. 

Hope I was able to help! Feel free to leave a comment if you have any further questions :)
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