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The answer is C, one over thirty-two
For this case we have the following fraction:
(1-cos ^ 2 (θ)) / (sin ^ 2 (θ))
We must take into account the following trigonometric identity:
cos ^ 2 (θ) + sin ^ 2 (θ) = 1
Therefore rewriting we have:
sin ^ 2 (θ) = 1 - cos ^ 2 (θ)
Substituting in the given fraction we have:
(1-cos ^ 2 (θ)) / (sin ^ 2 (θ))
= (sin ^ 2 (θ)) / (sin ^ 2 (θ))
= 1
Answer:
1
Answer:
Add
Step-by-step explanation:
When MULTIPLY exponents with same base, you Keep the base and + ADD the exponents.
Answer:
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Step-by-step explanation:
