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just olya [345]
3 years ago
11

Whats the answer can someone answer please​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Andreas93 [3]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Dmitrij [34]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

3 is being distributed into x and 3 inside the parenthesis. So it is distributive property.

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If 1 inch is 500 miles, then 4 inches is how many miles?
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

2,000 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given:

1 inch=500 miles

This can be rewritten as:

\frac{500 miles}{1inch}

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This can rewritten as:

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Therefore, there are 2,000 miles in 4 inches.

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We can check our solution by simplifying the fraction \frac{2000 miles}{4 inches} by dividing both 2000 and 4 by 4 to see if we achieve the unit rate:

\frac{500 miles}{1 inch}

Since this is in fact the unit rate, our solution is correct!

6 0
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Please help me with this question.
Eduardwww [97]

Answer:

the answer is 11.5

Step-by-step explanation:

2x-9=14

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5 0
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