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velikii [3]
3 years ago
6

Find a counterexample to show the conjecture is false

Mathematics
1 answer:
EleoNora [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If two angles are supplement of each other then one of the angles must be acute

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Jasmine has a pet rhino that weighs 4,000 pounds. How many tons does Jasmine's pet rhino weigh? Explain
Maurinko [17]

Answer: 2 tons.

Step-by-step explanation:

1 pound = 0.0005 tons.

4,000*0.0005=2

Jasmine's rhino weighs 2 tons

8 0
3 years ago
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Sketch the graph of the following equations:<br> y = |3x +5|
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Buddy use desmos to graph this
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Solve the following:<br><br> four and seven twelfths plus six and nine twelfths
irinina [24]

Ans:

11 and four twelfths

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
a. Suppose we had $15,192 cash and invested it in the bank at 16 percent interest, how much would you have at the end of 1, 2, 3
Goryan [66]

Answer:

Part a) \$17,622.72

Part b) \$20,442.36

Part c) \$23,713.13

Part d) \$27,507.23

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that  

The compound interest formula is equal to

A=P(1+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

where

A is the Final Investment Value

P is the Principal amount of money to be invested

r is the rate of interest  in decimal

t is Number of Time Periods

n is the number of times interest is compounded per year

Part a) How much would you have at the end of 1 year?

in this problem we have

t=1\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1

substitute in the formula above

A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*1}=\$17,622.72

Part b) How much would you have at the end of 2 year?

in this problem we have

t=2\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1

substitute in the formula above

A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*2}=\$20,442.36

Part c) How much would you have at the end of 3 year?

in this problem we have

t=3\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1

substitute in the formula above

A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*3}=\$23,713.13

Part d) How much would you have at the end of 4 year?

in this problem we have

t=4\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1

substitute in the formula above

A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*4}=\$27,507.23

5 0
2 years ago
How to reduce 35/48?
Tom [10]

Since  35  and  48  have no common factor greater than ' 1 ',
there's no number by which the numerator and denominator
can both be divided.  That means the fraction is already in
lowest terms (simplest form).


3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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