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finlep [7]
4 years ago
12

Simplify p(p - q) - q(q - p). p 2 - q 2 p 2 + q 2 p 2 + pq - q 2 p 2 - pq - q 2

Mathematics
2 answers:
iVinArrow [24]4 years ago
6 0
P^2 - pq - q^2 + pq
= p^2 - q^2
satela [25.4K]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The solution of the expression is p(p-q)-q(q-p)=p^2-q^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : Expression p(p-q)-q(q-p)

To find : Simplify the expression?

Solution :  

Step 1 - Write the expression,

p(p-q)-q(q-p)

Step 2 - Apply distributive property, a(b+c)=ab+ac

p(p-q)-q(q-p)=p^2-pq-q^2+qp

Step 3 - Add like terms,

p(p-q)-q(q-p)=p^2-q^2

Therefore, The solution of the expression is p(p-q)-q(q-p)=p^2-q^2

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It cost Brody $9.80 to send 196 text messages. How many text messages did he send if he spent $4.20? *
Dvinal [7]

Answer:

84

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
77 prime or composite
Ludmilka [50]

<u><em>Seventy-seven is a composite number. </em></u>

Because you had to divide by eleven or seven. Then you can multiply by seven or eleven its equal to seventy-seven.

77/11=7

11*7=77

77/7=11

7*11=77

Final answer: \boxed{=77}

Hope this helps!

And thank you for posting your question at here on brainly, and have a great day.

-Charlie

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose that each child born is equally likely to be a boy or a girl. Consider a family with exactly three children. Let BBG ind
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

(a)

S = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, GBB, BBG, BGB, BGG, BBB\}

(b)

i.

1\ girl = \{GBB, BBG, BGB\}

P(1\ girl) = 0.375

ii.

Atleast\ 2 \ girls = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, BGG\}

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = 0.5

iii.

No\ girl = \{BBB\}

P(No\ girl) = 0.125

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Children = 3

B = Boys

G = Girls

Solving (a): List all possible elements using set-roster notation.

The possible elements are:

S = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, GBB, BBG, BGB, BGG, BBB\}

And the number of elements are:

n(S) = 8

Solving (bi) Exactly 1 girl

From the list of possible elements, we have:

1\ girl = \{GBB, BBG, BGB\}

And the number of the list is;

n(1\ girl) = 3

The probability is calculated as;

P(1\ girl) = \frac{n(1\ girl)}{n(S)}

P(1\ girl) = \frac{3}{8}

P(1\ girl) = 0.375

Solving (bi) At least 2 are girls

From the list of possible elements, we have:

Atleast\ 2 \ girls = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, BGG\}

And the number of the list is;

n(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = 4

The probability is calculated as;

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = \frac{n(Atleast\ 2 \ girls)}{n(S)}

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = \frac{4}{8}

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = 0.5

Solving (biii) No girl

From the list of possible elements, we have:

No\ girl = \{BBB\}

And the number of the list is;

n(No\ girl) = 1

The probability is calculated as;

P(No\ girl) = \frac{n(No\ girl)}{n(S)}

P(No\ girl) = \frac{1}{8}

P(No\ girl) = 0.125

7 0
3 years ago
a wholesaler allows a discount of 25kobo for every 25 naira goods purchased . find the percentage discount allowed.
ZanzabumX [31]

The percentage discount allowed by the wholesaler is 1%

<h3>Percentage</h3>

  • 1 naira = 100 Kobo

25 naira = 25 × 100

= 2500 Kobo

Percentage discount allowed = 25 / 2500 × 100

= 0.01 × 100

= 1%

Therefore, the percentage discount allowed is 1%

Learn more about percentage:

brainly.com/question/843074

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
A machine paints 34o toy boats im 3/4 of an hour how many boats can he make per hour
leonid [27]
Here, we can set up a proportion:

34 ÷ 3/4 = ? ÷ 1
34*1 = 34
34÷3/4 = the time needed to build one toyboat

34/3/4 = 45.3333333333

45.3 repeating is not a whole number, so we need to approximate. 

45 is the closest whole number, 

So.. a machine can paint 45 toy boats per hour. 

I really hope that helped! :) 

7 0
3 years ago
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