Answer:
The answer is in a perfect competition profit is maximized when marginal cost equal marginal revenue and price is equal to average revenue and marginal revenue, while in monopolist profit is maximized when marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue.
Explanation:
The firm in a perfectly competitive market is a price taker,the price in the market is determined by the market forces of demand and supply. The firm has to sell their product at the ruling market price.The demand curve facing the firm in perfectly competitive market is horizontal or perfectly elastic, profit is therefore maximized when the marginal cost is equal to average revenue and marginal revenue. The firm in the market operate at the output level in which the price and marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost. Whatever prices that change the market demand or supply will change the demand curve faced by the firm.The firm cannot do anything to this than to accept the market price and the demand curve.
In a monopoly the demand curve is identical to the demand curve of the firm, because industry demand curve is downward sloping.The monopolist can either set the price or quantity not the two.when one is determined the value of the other will be determined by the demand function. The profit maximization of the monopolist also requires that marginal cost must be equal to marginal revenue just like in the case of perfect completion.when the monopolist equates MR and MC the monopolist determines its output and the market price for the product. The revenue curve is steeper than the demand curve,because the straight line is the market demand. The firm will have to reduce The price of the product if they want to sell more of their product the unit of the product sold is the AR which is equal to the price.Therefore the AR curve of the monopolist and the perfect competition MR and AR are both identical that informed the reason why the marginal revenue curve is steeper than the demand curve for a single price monopolist.
Answer:
C) in swap transactions where the trader is attempting to minimize currency exposure, the actual spot and outright forward rates are often of no consequence.
Explanation:
Swap transactions occur with negotiations based on the profitability of two goods, in relation to the profitability related to the value of a currency of a given location. As the currency value of these two goods can vary significantly, the traders involved in this process always seek to minimize currency exposure, as well as real cash rates. This gives space for bank brokers to use shortened laces notation, where future price predictions are considered.
Answer and Explanation:
The classification is as followS:
<u>Transactions Accrual basis Cash basis </u>
1. Cash received in advance Not record record the revenue
2. Purchase supplies Not record Not record the expense
3. Received cash for services record revenue record revenue
4. Perform services Record revenue Not record the revenue
5. Pay cash for the supplies Not record record the expense
In this way it should be classified
Answer and Explanation:
The classification of the funds as a short term or long term strategy as follows;
a. Line of credit = short term financing
b. Commercial paper = short term financing
c. Trade credit = short term financing
d. Bank load of 10 months = short term financing
e. Bond = long term financing
f. Stock = long term financing
g. Bank load of 20 months = long term financing
In this way, the classifications of the funds has to be done
Answer:
Cost of equity = 8.22%
Explanation:
Cost of equity = Dividend per share /current market value + growth rate of dividend
Cost of equity = 2/90 + 6%
Cost of equity = 0.0222 + 6%
Cost of equity =0.0222 + 0.06
Cost of equity = 0.0822
Cost of equity = 8.22%
