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Dmitriy789 [7]
2 years ago
11

Please help! will mark brainlist ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Katen [24]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Group B, lower values of dots, with lower amounts of dots.

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Answer:

∫▒〖arctan⁡(x).1 dx=arctan⁡(x).x〗-1/2  ln⁡(1+x^2 )+C

Step-by-step explanation:

∫▒〖1st .2nd dx=1st∫▒〖2nd dx〗-∫▒〖(derivative of 1st) dx∫▒〖2nd dx〗〗〗

Let 1st=arctan⁡(x)

And 2nd=1

∫▒〖arctan⁡(x).1 dx=arctan⁡(x) ∫▒〖1 dx〗-∫▒〖(derivative of arctan(x))dx∫▒〖1 dx〗〗〗

As we know that  

derivative of arctan(x)=1/(1+x^2 )

∫▒〖1 dx〗=x

So  

∫▒〖arctan⁡(x).1 dx=arctan⁡(x).x〗-∫▒〖(1/(1+x^2 ))dx.x〗…………Eq1

Let’s solve ∫▒(1/(1+x^2 ))dx by substitution now  

Let 1+x^2=u

du=2xdx

Multiply and divide ∫▒〖(1/(1+x^2 ))dx.x〗 by 2 we get

1/2 ∫▒〖(2/(1+x^2 ))dx.x〗=1/2 ∫▒(2xdx/u)  

1/2 ∫▒(2xdx/u) =1/2 ∫▒(du/u)  

1/2 ∫▒(2xdx/u) =1/2  ln⁡(u)+C

1/2 ∫▒(2xdx/u) =1/2  ln⁡(1+x^2 )+C

Putting values in Eq1 we get

∫▒〖arctan⁡(x).1 dx=arctan⁡(x).x〗-1/2  ln⁡(1+x^2 )+C  (required soultion)

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