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AlexFokin [52]
3 years ago
7

Yall arent correct...

Mathematics
1 answer:
koban [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Of course they were incorrect

Step-by-step explanation:

Anything to the power of 0 will always be 1, no matter what the number is.

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Tonya plans to join a fitness club. She researched the costs to join different clubs in her area and found that there is a linea
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer: 1 club - Club 2

Step-by-step explanation:

You can find the monthly rates by deducting the cost at 12 months from the cost at 24 months and dividing it by 12.

Club 1                                         Club 2                                 Club 3

= (432 - 216) / 12                       = (390 - 210) / 12                 = (504 - 252) / 12

= $18                                          = $15                                   = $21

Multiply these rates by 6 months and any club total cost at 6 month that differs from your answer has a joining fee.

Club 1;                                          Club 2;                                 Club 3

= 18 * 6                                         = 15 * 6                                = 21 * 6

= $108                                          = $90                                  = $126

<em>Same as total cost at              </em><u><em> Joining fee of $30</em></u><em>;      </em>         <em>No joining fee as </em>

<em>6 months so no joining            120 - 90 = $30                      this is the same </em>

<em>fee.                                                                                           as total cost at 6 </em>

<em>                                                                                                 months.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A bicycle is traveling at 12 miles per hour. How many feet will it cover in 60 seconds? Round your answer to the nearest tenth o
solniwko [45]

Answer:

0.2

Divide 12 by 60

4 0
3 years ago
The diameter of a circle is 8 inches. What is the area?
Serggg [28]
A = 1/4 * (pi) * d^2
A = 1/4 * (pi) * 8^2
A = 1/4 * (pi) * 64
A = 1/4(64) * (pi)
A = 64/4 * (pi)
A = 16 (pi) in^2
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
At Mr. Clark's shop, his employees work 20 hours each week and
finlep [7]

Answer:

B if there is an N at the end or beginning of it, Not sure if it cut off or not.

Step-by-step explanation:

Well you would need to do 20(7) to get 140, then multiply that to N. I would say B because I'm assuming you're missing out on some part of it, if it is N at the beginning or end then it is B.

5 0
3 years ago
Use two unit multipliers to convert 628 kilometers to centimeters
irina [24]

Using two unit multiplier 628 km is equal to 62800000 cm

<u>Solution:</u>

628 kilometer to centimeter

We will go from kilometers to meters to centimeters.

Start by putting 628 km over 1:

\frac{628 km}{1}

We want to get rid of km and bring in m.

We know that 1000 m = 1 km.

Since km is in the numerator, we will make the  first unit multiplier by putting 1 km in the  denominator and 1000 m in the numerator, so the  km will cancel. So we multiply by the unit multiplier,

\frac{628 km}{1} \times \frac{1000m}{1km}

Now the km's will cancel:

\frac{628}{1} \times \frac{1000m}{1}

Now we want to get rid of m and bring in cm.

We know that 100 cm = 1 m.

Since meter is in the numerator, we will make the  first unit multiplier by putting 1 meter in the  denominator and 100 cm in the numerator, so the  meter's will cancel. So we multiply by the unit  multiplier

\frac{100cm}{1m}

\frac{628}{1} \times \frac{1000m}{1} \times \frac{100cm}{1m}

We cancel the m's and we end up with:

628 \times 1000 \times 100 cm

= 62800000 cm

Thus 628 km is equal to 62800000 cm

5 0
3 years ago
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