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2 years ago

Please asap I need this for a test

Mathematics

1 answer:

ki77a [65]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(f O g) this basically means that the input x first goes trough the function g and then f. Like f(g(x)).

So when x went trough g, you got the output g(x) and then this went trough f and you got f(g(x)) = -8 = 'f(x)'.

With this in mind you can retrace your steps by first looking at what input can get -8 as an output, for f this is -4. this means g(x) = -4

Then you look at what input (this is the x you're looking for) gets you the ouput -4. Looking at the second image you'll picture see that it's the input 3.

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The area of a square notepad is 100 square centimeters how long is each side?

yan [13]

Answer:

10 cm

Step-by-step explanation

to fine area of square you multiply 2 sides together and get the area and 10x10 is 100

3 0

3 years ago

AN ARTICLE STATED THAT “INTERNAL SURVEYS PAID FOR BY DIRECTORY ASSISTANCE PROVIDERS SHOW THAT EVEN THE MOST ACCURATE COMPANIES G

yan [13]

Using the binomial distribution, there is a 0.3474 = 34.74% probability of getting one wrong number.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

The parameters are:

x is the number of successes.

n is the number of trials.

p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

For this problem, the values of the parameters are given by:

p = 0.15, n = 10.

The probability of getting one wrong number is P(X = 1), hence:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

P(X = 1) = C(10,1) x (0.15)¹ x (0.85)^9 = 0.3474

0.3474 = 34.74% probability of getting one wrong number.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

8 0

2 years ago

What is the probability you roll doubles on two 6 sides dice <br> please show work

Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

We can start by determining all the different combinations we can get.

We are using 6 sided dices, so we have a chance of getting 6 different numbers for each dice.

If we only have 1 dice, the our possible values would be:

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

However, we have 2 dices. As such, our combinations have been multiplied, and now our possibilities are:

(1 , 1) , (1 , 2) , (1 , 3) , (1 , 4) , (1 , 5) , (1 , 6) , (2 , 1) , (2 , 2) , (2 , 3) , (2 , 4) , (2 , 5) , (2 ,6), and so on for 3, 4, 5, and 6

We can find the number of combinations by simply multiplying the amount of possible values for each dice.

Since both dices have 6 possible values, we multiply 6 by 6, and the amount of possible combinations is 36.

Now, let's determine the possibility for getting a double.

First, let's determine how many doubles we can get:

(1 , 1) , (2 , 2) , (3 , 3) , (4 , 4) , (5 , 5) , (6 ,6)

There are 6 different combinations for rolling a double.

So, our probability of rolling a double on two 6 sided dices is 6 out of 36

We can simplify that to 1 out of 6.

So the probability of rolling a double on two 6 sided dices is 1/6

8 0

2 years ago

Solve this equation -x+4=x+6 Is it "No Solution"?

Pachacha [2.7K]

X is -2 because you add x to both sides, then you subtract 6 from both sides and you get x=-2

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Find out what's wrong with this graph

serious [3.7K]

Answer:

The y-axis is upside down, meaning that instead of the values increasing as they go up, they decrease.

7 0

3 years ago