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Vadim26 [7]
2 years ago
8

Please explain how to solve this step by step.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Phantasy [73]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

  (a^8)/(b^9)

Step-by-step explanation:

Two rules of exponents come into play.

  (a^b)/(a^c) = a^(b-c)

  a^-b = 1/a^b

__

Applying the first rule, we have ...

  (a^3)/(a^-5) × (b^-2)/(b^7) = a^(3 -(-5)) × b^(-2 -7) = a^8 × b^-9

Applying the second rule gives the simplified form ...

  = (a^8)/(b^9)

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Factor 2k^2 - k - 3<br> A: (2k-3)(k+1)<br> B: (k-1)(2k+3)<br> C: (2k-1)(k+3)<br> D: (k-3)(2k+1)
Art [367]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

2k² - k - 3

Consider the factors of the product of the k² term and the constant term which sum to give the coefficient of the k- term.

product = 2 × - 3 = - 6 and sum = - 1

The factors are + 2 and - 3

Use these factors to split the k- term

2k² + 2k - 3k - 3 ( factor the first/second and third/fourth terms )

= 2k(k + 1) - 3(k + 1) ← factor out (k + 1) from each term

= (2k - 3)(k + 1) → A

4 0
3 years ago
Use appropriate algebra and theorem 7.2.1 to find the given inverse laplace transform. (write your answer as a function of t.) −
aleksley [76]
When it comes to laplace equations, there are transformation equations to follow. Generally, when you want to transform a laplace equation, you change the equation from f(t) to F(s). If you do the reverse, it is called the reverse laplace equation.

Based on the given, the useful transformation equation is shown in the attached picture.

When the term is s^2, that must mean that the equation is 1!/s^(1+1) to yield 1/s^2. This means that n=1. Taking the reciprocal s^2 must be equal to 1/t. Thus, for the first term, -11s^2 is equal to -11/t. For the second term, n must be equal to 6 so that 6!/s^(6+1) would yield 720/s^7. Thus, 720s^7 is equal to 1/t^6. 

Hence, the transformed equation is -11/t - 1/t^6

4 0
3 years ago
What is the simplest ratio of 32 and 48
Elden [556K]
2:3
Keep diving each number by 2.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone please help me-
puteri [66]

Answer:

can be expressed as decimal: 0.025

s= 1.025* $250

 = $256.25

after 8 years

s= $250* 1.025^8

 ~$304.6

earned $54.6

Step-by-step explanation:

2 and a half is equivilant to 2.5

because it is a % (out of 100) move the decimal 2 places down

2.5-->0.25-->0.025

so can be expressed as decimal: 0.025

interest after 1 year is:

original amount of money * (interest rate+1.0)

+1 because you are adding on to 100%. you already have 100%.  if it was just the interest rate, the amount of money would go down.

so

s= 1.025* $250

=1.025* 250

=256.25

interest after 8 years,

that means you have to take the original, and multiply it by the interest rate, then the new original multiply by intrest rate a total of 8 times

to do this use an exponent, because exponents base the total off the total before them. if that makes any sense srry

s= $250* 1.025^8

 ~$304.6  (I used calculator)

to get her earnings, subtract the new amount of money with her original amount of money

304.6-250

=54.6

$54.6

hope this helps

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Show that cos3(B)+cos(B)sin2(B) = 1 sin(B)cos2(B)+sin3(B) tan(B)
Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer:

-90

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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