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lesya692 [45]
2 years ago
9

MULTIPLE CHOICE PLEASE HELP

Mathematics
1 answer:
Kazeer [188]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

e. same side interior angles

Step-by-step explanation:

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Solve the following 1-step equation for x
netineya [11]

Answer:

x= -12

Step-by-step explanation:

-22+10 = -12

you have to do the opposite operation

6 0
3 years ago
Write and solve an equation to find the number n. Six times the sum of a number and 15 is -42.
nata0808 [166]

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

6*(n + 15) = -42

Divide both sides by 6

6*(n - 15)/6 = -42/6

n - 15 = -7

n = -7 + 15

n = 8

3 0
3 years ago
an average sized dog weighs about A. 15 grams B. 50 grams C. 5,000 grams D. 15,00 grams I don't know the answer, please help
Fed [463]
The answer to your question is C
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Factor<br> 22 + 13z + 12
MakcuM [25]

Answer:

13z+34

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this help

4 0
3 years ago
Need help pleaseI was bad at math in school so lwant to learn
aleksklad [387]

The probability of an event is expressed as

Pr(\text{event) =}\frac{Total\text{ number of favourable/desired outcome}}{Tota\text{l number of possible outcome}}

Given:

\begin{gathered} \text{Red}\Rightarrow2 \\ \text{Green}\Rightarrow3 \\ \text{Blue}\Rightarrow2 \\ \Rightarrow Total\text{ number of balls = 2+3+2=7 balls} \end{gathered}

The probability of drwing two blue balls one after the other is expressed as

Pr(\text{blue)}\times Pr(blue)

For the first draw:

\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue) = }\frac{number\text{ of blue balls}}{total\text{ number of balls}} \\ =\frac{2}{7} \end{gathered}

For the second draw, we have only 1 blue ball left out of a total of 6 balls (since a blue ball with drawn earlier).

Thus,

\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue)}=\frac{number\text{ of blue balls left}}{total\text{ number of balls left}} \\ =\frac{1}{6} \end{gathered}

The probability of drawing two blue balls one after the other is evaluted as

\begin{gathered} \frac{1}{6}\times\frac{2}{7} \\ =\frac{1}{21} \end{gathered}

The probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

\begin{gathered} 1-\frac{1}{21} \\ =\frac{20}{21} \end{gathered}

Hence, the probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

\frac{20}{21}

8 0
1 year ago
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