Answer:
The correct word for the blank space is: procurement policy.
Explanation:
A procurement policy within the work frame is the set of regulations that establishes boundaries on the purchase of assets for the company's employees. Its main role is to ensure those purchases adjust to the needs of the organization so that the company can add value to its operations.
This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
Answer:
a: 12.8%
Explanation:
Standard Deviation would be calculated with the probability approach since there is probability given in the question.
- Formula of Standard Deviation and the solution is given in the pictures below.
- Although ERR the required part to calculate Standard Deviation is calculated in the text.
Calculating ERR:
ERR= Sum of Probabilities × Rate of returns.
In our question = ERR= 0.2 × 30% + 0.5 × 10% + 0.3 × (-6%) = 0.128 = 12.8%
Thus, by putting all the values in the formula you will get the answer 12.8%.
Because all people ( the public ) can fully enjoy this good/service without competing for it.
Answer:
faces exchange rate risk to the extent that it has international competitors in the domestic market.
Explanation:
Exchange rate risk is defined as the risk that exists when a company engaged in transactions that are denominated in a foreign currency rather than the domestic currency.
So if a purely domestic firm that sources and sells only domestically has international competitors in its local market, and the exchange rate is favouring the competitors there will be a risk for them.
For example if international competitors can source raw materials cheaper because of the exchange rate of a foreign country, it will be a disadvantage to local firms that cannot reduce their prices.
