Step-by-step explanation:
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They all have either a common factor, common multiple, LCF, GCF, LCM, or GCM. The G and L stand for greater and least.
The required inequality is 
<em><u>Solution:</u></em>
Given that,
Cost of 1 cap = $ 5
Cost of 1 t-shirt = $ 10
Let "x" be the number of caps sold
Let "y" be the number of t-shirts sold
The drama club needs to raise at least $500.00 for the trip
Based on this information, we can frame a inequality as:
number of caps sold x cost of 1 cap + number of shirts sold x cost of 1 shirt 
500
Which means,
Here we used "greater than or equal to" symbol , because club needs to raise at least $ 500
They can raise 500 or more than $ 500 also
Thus the required inequality is
<span>πd is the circumference of a circle, so with a diameter of 4 a single circle has a circumference of 4π. 1/3 of each circle is in contact with the belt, so that total part is still 4π. Then, the part of the belt connecting from tangent to tangent is 2 radii, so 3 areas is 12. The belt would then be 12+4π cm.</span>
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
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