Burn it! (Lol IDK if this question was serious)
Explanation:
a. The computation is shown below:
As we know that
Multiplier = 1 ÷ 1 - MPC
1.5 = 1 ÷ 1 - MPC
So, MPC is 0.3333
Now the real GDP is
= Multiplier × Government spending
= 0.3333 × $70 billion
= $105 million
So the change in real GDP is
= $105 million - $70 million
= $35 million
b. The computation is shown below:
As we know that
Multiplier = 1 ÷ 1 - MPC
Multiplier = 1 ÷ 1 - 0.6
So, multiplier is 2.5
Now the real GDP is
= Multiplier × Government spending
= 2.5 × $16 billion
= -$40 million
c. As we know that
Real GDP = Multiplier × Government spending
$280 billion = Multiplier × $70 billion
So, the multiplier is 4
Now the MPC is
Multiplier = 1 ÷ 1 - MPC
4 = 1 ÷ 1 - MPC
So, the multiplier is 0.75
Answer: This certain manager should be able to reach out to other the employes to join more organizations. I think that if these other employees are contributing to more organization than others, Then they will be more selected. The other employees that are not contributing will certainly be fired. Thanks this is my way of reasoning:)
Answer:
Implicit costs do not require a direct monetary outlay by the firm, whereas explicit costs do.
Explanation:
Rent, salary, and other operating expenses are considered explicit costs. They are all recorded within a firm's financial statements, meaning they are present and clearly shown or reported as a separate cost. The main difference between the two types of costs is that implicit costs are opportunity costs, meaning that it is present but it is not initially shown or reported as a separate cost, while explicit costs are expenses paid with a company's own tangible assets. In other words, explicit costs are always shown, implicit costs are not, at least initially, exactly like the meaning words suggest.