Answer:
9.941*10^-6
Step-by-step explanation:
Probability of at most 1 means not more than 1 defective= probability of 1 or probability of 0
Probability of 1 = 50C1(0.25)(0.75)^49
Probability= 50(0.25)*7.55*10^-7
Probability= 9.375*10^-6
Probability of 0
= 50C0(0.25)^0(0.75)^50
= 1(1)(0.566*10^-6)
= 0.566*10^-6
Total probability
= 9.375*10^-6+ 0.566*10^-6
= 9.941*10^-6
Answer:
k=48
Step-by-step explanation:
Add -29 and 77
k: -3k -3k =48
Answer:
(-2+-5) equals -7.
Because the signs are the same, we dont change it.
(3+5) equals 8. Same like the other equation, the signs are the same so we do not change it.
Now we do (-7+8) The answer will be 1. Lets use a little graph since its hard to explain.
-8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Mark -7 anyway you want. (Circle it, draw a line under it, what ever you want.)
Now Move the line 8 times.
When you do that your line will stop at 1.
And thats how you do it.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming you are referring to simple interest not compound that that it is annual you would gain $100 putting you at $600
