Answer:
b. 1,062.81
Explanation:
the key to answer this question is to remember that valuation of a bond depends basically of calculating the present value of a series of cash flows, so let´s think about a bond as if you were a lender so you will get interest by the money you lend (coupon) and at the end of n years you will get back the money you lend at the beginnin (principal), so applying math we have the bond value given by:
![price=\frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{1} }+ \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{2} } \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{3} }+...+\frac{principal+principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{n} }](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=price%3D%5Cfrac%7Bprincipal%2Acoupon%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5E%7B1%7D%20%7D%2B%20%5Cfrac%7Bprincipal%2Acoupon%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%20%5Cfrac%7Bprincipal%2Acoupon%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5E%7B3%7D%20%7D%2B...%2B%5Cfrac%7Bprincipal%2Bprincipal%2Acoupon%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5E%7Bn%7D%20%7D)
where: principal as said before is the value lended, coupon is the rate of interest paid, i is the interest rate and n is the number of periods
so applying to this particular exercise, as it is not said we will assume that 6% and 7% are interest rate convertible seminually, so the price of the bond will be:
![price=\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{1} } +\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{2} }+\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{3} }+...+\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{15} }+\frac{1,000+1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{16} }](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=price%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%2A%5Cfrac%7B0.07%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.06%7D%7B2%7D%29%20%5E%7B1%7D%20%7D%20%2B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%2A%5Cfrac%7B0.07%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.06%7D%7B2%7D%29%20%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%2B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%2A%5Cfrac%7B0.07%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.06%7D%7B2%7D%29%20%5E%7B3%7D%20%7D%2B...%2B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%2A%5Cfrac%7B0.07%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.06%7D%7B2%7D%29%20%5E%7B15%7D%20%7D%2B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%2B1%2C000%2A%5Cfrac%7B0.07%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.06%7D%7B2%7D%29%20%5E%7B16%7D%20%7D)
price=1,062.81
take into account that here we are asked about semianually payments, so in 8 years there are 16 semesters.
Answer:
True Cash Balance $7,688
Explanation:
The computation of the true cash balance is shown below:
Unadjusted Cash Balance as of May 31 $7,176
Add: Interest Earned $14
Note Collected by Bank $600
Less: NSF check ($67)
Less Bank charges ($35)
True Cash Balance $7,688
Hence, the true cash balance is $7,688 and the same is to be considered
Based on the sales revenue and the net accounts receivable, the receivables turnover ratio is 12 times .
<h3>What is the receivables turnover ratio?</h3>
This can be found as:
= Net sales revenue / Average accounts receivable
Solving give:
= 720,000 / (62,000 + 58,000) / 2
= 720,000 / 60,000
= 12 times
Find out more on receivables turnover ratio at brainly.com/question/27523896.
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Answer:
Will switching to a perpetual inventory system strengthen Triple Creek Hardware’s control over inventory items?
- Yes, a perpetual inventory system provides updated information about inventory levels and costs. Since it is updated immediately, many of the company's problems could be solved, e.g. you can place an alert for minimum inventory levels on certain products and you can determine if the stocks of low sellers are too high.
Will switching to a perpetual inventory system eliminate the need for a physical inventory count?
- It will not completely eliminate the need to carry out a physical inventory, but it should reduce it substantially. Also, you can carry out a random physical inventory for certain products only. If the physical count shows that there are problems with the registered inventory, then you can carry out a complete physical count.