Answer:
They will decrease as production decreases
Explanation:
Total Variable cost is sum of all the cost incurred in production of total units of goods produced. It is directly proportional to the number of units of goods produced. It helps to analyze cost structure of goods and then decide on pricing strategy of the goods. Some of the examples of variable cost can be packaging cost, raw material’s cost.
Mathematically it can be defined as
Total variable cost = Total units of goods produced * variable cost for one unit of good produced
Hence from the given option They will decrease as production decreases as the number of units of goods produced will decrease and hence lesser raw material and packaging will be required to produce the goods.
Answer:
d. the monetary base decreases, loans decrease, and the money supply decreases.
Explanation:
In the case when the federal reserve reduce the reserve of the bank via open market operation so it would be resulted in decrease in the monetary base, reduction in the loan and the reduction in the money supply. Overall, all three things would be decrease
Therefore as per the given situation, the option d is correct
And the same would be relevant
Answer:
A) in any particular year, the level of GDP is determined mainly by the level of aggregate expenditure.
Explanation:
The formula for calculating the aggregate expenditure (AE) of an economy is the same used to calculate the gross domestic product:
Aggregate expenditures = consumption + investment + government + net exports (exports - imports)
The main difference between the GDP ans AE is that AE measures the planned consumption, the planned investment, the planned government expenses and the planned net exports.
he equation is: AE = C + I + G + NX. The aggregate expenditure determines the total amount that firms and households plan to spend on goods and services at each level of income.
I think the rate of interest is 14 hope this helps
Because if you divide 880 by 63 you would just keep 14 without adding
Answer:
The answer is 27,408.71
Explanation:
Solution
Recall that:
You were left with a trust fund of =$100,00
Interest rate = 6.5%
Money with drawled = 4 installments
Now,
The step to take is to find you could withdraw currently at the start of each of the next 3 years with a zero account to end up with.
Now,
100, 00 = X (1 - (1.065)^-4/.065/1.065
We now solve for X
Thus
X =7,408.71
By applying or using a financial calculator
We arrange it to an annuity due setting - [2nd] [BGN] then [2nd] [Set] this will set it to mode "BGN"
So,
N = 4
I/Y = 6.5
PV = -100,000
FV = 0
CPT PMT
The payments are known to to be 27,408.71
Note : Kindly find an attached copy of the Financial calculator below
