**Answer:**

I'm not sure but I did do it on a calculator so 1.515-1.56= -0.045

Raj's **conjecture** is **valid** i.e an **even** number times an **even** or **odd** number will always be **even**.

**Even** numbers are number that can be **divided** by 2 without leaving a **remainder**. Examples are: 4, 6, 8, 20, 50 etc. While **odd** numbers can not be divided **evenly** by 2. Examples are: 7, 11, 17, etc

Thus, the **conjecture** can be proved as follows:

i. **Even** number times an **even** number

- 4 x 12 = 48
- 6 x 8 = 48
- 2 x 10 = 20
- 12 x 16 = 192

Thus, an **even** number multiplied by an **even** number would give an **even** number.

ii. **Even** number times an **odd** number

- 4 x 11 = 44
- 6 x 5 = 30
- 2 x 7 = 14
- 8 x 17 = 136
- Thus, an
**even** number multiplied by an **odd** number would always give an **even** number.

Therefore, Raj's conjecture is **valid**.

Visit: brainly.com/question/2057828

**Answer:**

Peter ran 78 miles

**Step-by-step explanation:**

**Answer:**

280

**Step-by-step explanation:**

**Answer:**

**Step-by-step explanation:**

If you roll a die, you have a 1/6 chance of getting any number.

That being the case, 1/6 * 50 = 8 1/3 times for the 5.

8 1/3 / 50 = 0.16666